#1
3rd December 2014, 12:00 PM
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Corporation Bank PO Model Question paper
Tell me from where I can get Corporation Bank PO Model Question paper, will you please provide here???
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#2
3rd December 2014, 03:39 PM
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Re: Corporation Bank PO Model Question paper
You are looking for Corporation Bank PO Model Question paper, I am giving here: ENGLISH LANGUAGE Q.201-205. Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the paper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay. (B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into books”, (C) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticed my noticing her. (D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”. (E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him. Q.201, Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E Q.202, Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E Q.203, Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E Q.204, Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E Q.205, Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E Q.206-215. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. The right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came (206) effects in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just (207) the corner, it is fast becoming clear that (208) well-intentioned ideas into (209) will take some doing. For a start, the guidelines for admission under the RTE prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student profiling The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that school will have to resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure (210) will only incentivise manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE. The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to education are all very well, (211) we have the infrastructure in place first Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the (212) way around. In that sense legislaors’ assessment of ground realities is (213) target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of low-cost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down (214) on private schools failing to conform to abstract bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education should focus on upgrading and expanding the exisiting government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can we ensure the much-needed supply-demand (215) in the education sector. Q.206. (1) with (2) for (3) on (4) into (5) in Q.207. (1) around (2) near (3) into (4) about (5) reaching Q.208. (1) forming (2) translating (3) having (4) taking (5) framing Q.209. (1) affect (2) ideas (3) practice (4) concept (5) procedure Q.210. (1) benefit (2) merit (3) chance (4) basis (5) method Q.211. (1) unless (2) until (3) executed (4) provided (5) exercised Q.212. (1) other (2) any (3) two (4) differ (5) after Q.213. (1) on (2) of (3) often (4) taken (5) off Q.214. (1) soft (2) more (3) less (4) only (5) hard Q.215. (1) need (2) equilibrium (3) expectation (4) attempt (5) aspects Q.216-225, Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) Q.216. The president has denied / that the (1) economy is in recession / or was go into (2) (3) one / Despite a spate of downcast (4) reports. No error (5) Q.217. The angry at being / left out of the (1) (2) bonanza / is palpable among / (3) employees of the organization. No error (4) (5) Q.218. His comments came after / the research (1) (2) group said that its / consumer confidnce (3) index were / slumped to its lowest level. (4) No error (5) Q.219. If all goes well, / the examination (1) (2) scheduled for next month / is all set to be (3) completely free /from annoying power (4) cuts and disruptions. No error (5) Q.220. There are just too few trains / for the ever- (1) (2) grow / number of passenger / in the city. (3) (4) No error (5) Q.221. The buzz at the party was / that a famous (1) (2) / filmstar and politician, would / (3) probable drop by for a while. No error (4) (5) Q.222. The opposition disrupted proceedings / (1) in both Houses of parliament /for the (2) second consecutive day / above the plight (3) (4) of farmers in the country. No error (5) Q.223. In response to the growing crisis, / the (1) agency is urgently asking for / more (2) contributions, to make up for / its sharp (3) decline in purchasing power. No error (4) (5) Q.224. The tennis player easy through / the (1) opening set before her opponent, / rallied (2) to take the final two sets / for the biggest (3) (4) victory of her young career. No error (5) Q.225. Aggression in some teenage boys / may (1) be linkage to overly /large glands in (2) (3) their brains, / a new study has found. (4) No error (5) Q.226-233. Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Crtain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. A new analysis determined that the threat of global warming can still be greatly diminished if nations cut emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70% this century. The analysis was done by scientists at the National Centre for Atmospheric Research (NCAR). While global temperatures would rise, the most dangerous potential aspects of climate change, including massive losses of Arctic sea ice and permafrost and significant sealevel rise, could be partially avoided. “This research indicates that we can no longer avoid significant warming during the century said NCAR scientist Warren Washington, the study paper’s lead author. “But, if the would were to implement this level of emission cuts, we could stabilize the threat of climate change “, he added. Average global temperatures have warmed by close to 1 degree Celsius since the pre-industrial era. Much of the warming is due to humanproduced emission of greenhouse gases, predominantly carbon dioxide. This heattrapping gas increased from a pre-industrial level of about 284 parts per million (ppm) in the atmosphere to more than 380 ppm today. With research showing that additional warming of about 1 degree C may be the threshold for dangerous climate change, the European Union has called for dramatic cuts in emission of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases. To examine the impact of such cuts on the world’s climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a series of global studies with NCAR-based Community Climate system Model (CCSM). They assumed that carbon dioxide levels could be help to 450 ppm at the end of this century. In contrast emissions are now on track to reach about 750 ppm by 2100 if unchecked. The team’s results showed that is carbon dioxide were held to 450 ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degree Celsius above current readings by the end of the century. In contrast, The study showed that temperatures would rise by almost for times that amount, to 2.2 degree Celsius above current reading, if emissions were allowed to continue on their present course. Holding carbon dioxide levels to 450 ppm would have other impacts, according to the climate modeling study. Sea- level rise due to thermal expansion as water temperatures warmed would be 14 centimeters (about 5.5 inches) instead of 22 centimeters (8.7 inches). Also, Arctic ice in the Summertime would shrink by about a quarter in volume and stabilize by 2100, as opposed to shrinking at least threequarters and continuing to melt, and Arctic warming would be reduced by almost half. Q.226. Why has the European Union called for dramatic cuts in cartoon dioxide and greenhouse gas emissions ? (1) As global warming is not issue of concern (2) As the temperatures may rise almost by an additional one degree and this lead to severe climate change. (3) As the NCAR has forced the European Union to announce the cuts. (4) As all the nations have decided to cut emissions of carbon dioxide (5) None of these Q.227. What would NOT be one of the impacts of cutting greenhouse gas emissions ? (1) Temperatures will stop soaring (2) Ice in the Arctic sea would melt at a slower pace (3) The rise in sea level would be lesser (4) All of the above would be the impact (5) None of these Q.228. What would be the impact of unchecked greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide emissions ? (1) The temperature would rise from the current temperature by 2.2 degrees Celsius (2) The sea-level would rise by about 5.5 inches (3) The arctic ice would stabilize by 2100 (4) The arctic ice would reduce by onefourth (5) None of these Q.229. What can be the most appropriate title of the above passage ? (1) A study of the rise in water level (2) A study of rise in temperatures (3) A study of the effects of greenhouse gas emissions (4) A study of the Arctic region (5) A study of change in seasons Q.230. Which of the following statements is true in context of the passage ? (1) At present the carbon dioxide emission about 284 ppm (2) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked (3) The carbon dioxide emissions was about 380 ppm during the preindustrial era. (4) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 750 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked (5) None of these Q.231. What does the scientist Warren Washington mean when he says “we could stabilize the threat of climate change ? (1) Climate change can be stopped completely (2) Climate change can be regularized (3) Climate change and its effects can be studies extensively. (4) The ill-effects of the change in climate can be minimized (5) None of these Q.232. Why did Washington and his colleagues conduct a series of studies ? (1) Because they realized that the temperature increase was almost about 1 degree (2) So that they could stabilize the climate change (3) So that they could help the European Union in cutting the carbon dioxide emissions (4) Because they found out that the greenhouse gas emissions could be cut by 70% (5) None of these Q.233. What would be the impact of holding the carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at the end of this century ? (1) Global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degree Celcius. (2) Arctic warming would be reduced by half. (3) Thermal expansion will stop completely. (1) Only (A) (2) Only (A) and (C) (3) Only (B) and (C) (4) All the three (A), (B) and (C) (5) None of these Q.234-236. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage Q.234. DRAMATIC (1) unprecedented(2) thrilling (3) spectacular (4) effective (5) feeble Q.235. SHRINK (1) contract (2) physician (3) wither (4) shrivel (5) reduce Q.236. PREDOMINANTLY (1) clearly (2) aggressively (3) mainly (4) firstly (5) faintly Q.237. MASSIVE (1) tall (2) tough (3) total (4) little (5) severs Q.238-240. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. Q.238. SIGNIFICANT (1) substantial (2) miniscule (3) incoherent (4) unimportant (5) irrelevant Q.239. OPPOSED (1) resistant (2) against (3) favouring (4) similar (5) agree Q.240. DIMINISHED (1) created (2) rose (3) increased (4) lessen (5) finished Q.241-245. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. Q.241. Although scared of heights, she gather all her courage and stood atop the 24- storey building to participate in the activities. (1) gathered all her courage (2) gathered all courageous (3) gather all courageous (4) is gathered all courage (5) No correction required Q.242. Naturally, with everything gone so well for them, it was time for celebration. (1) go so well (2) going so well (3) gone as well (4) going as well (5) No correction required Solved Paper Q.243. The ban was imposed by state’s commercial taxes department last Friday after protests by a certain community, which had threat to burn cinema halls screening the controversial movie. (1) had threats of burning (2) had threated to burn (3) had threatened to burn (4) had threatened to burning (5) No correction required Q.244. Rakesh, an avid follball player who captained his team in school and college, will inaugurate the match tomorrow in Pune. (1) will be inaugurate (2) is inauguration (3) will inauguration (4) is inaugurate (5) No correction required Q.245. At a musical night organized for them, the artistic side of the doctors came as forward, as they sang beautifully and made the evening truly memorable. (1) come forward (2) come to the fore (3) came to the forth (4) came to the fore (5) No correction required Q.246-250. Each question below has two has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits meaning of the sentence as awhole. Q.246. Behaving in a _____ and serious way, even in a ____ situation, makes people respect you. (1) clam, difficult (2) steady, angry (3) flamboyant, tricky (4) cool, astounding (5) silly, sound Q.247. Along with a sharp rise in ____, recession would eventually result in more men, women, and children living in _____. (1) crime, apathy (2) fatalities, poor (3) deaths, tricky (4) unemployment, poverty (5) migrations, streets Q.248. The government has ______ to provide financial aid to the ones ______ by servers floods in the city. (1) desired, troubled (2) promised, havoc (3) failed, affected (4) wanted, struck (5) decided, ill Q.249. An airplane with _____ passengers on board made an unscheduled ____ as the airport to which it was it was heading was covered was covered with thick fog. (1) Irritable, slip (2) faulty, stop (3) variety, halt (4) tons, wait (5) numerous, landing Q.250. Deemed universities _____ huge fees, but have not been successful in providing education to our student. (1) collect, maintaining (2) pay, better (3) ask, good (4) charge, quality (5) demand, quantitative 201.(3) 202.(4) 203.(2) 204.(1) 205.(5) 206.(4) 207.(1) 208.(2) 209.(3) 210.(3)211.(4) 212.(1) 213.(5) 214.(5) 215.(2) 216.(3) 217.(1) 218.(3) 219.(5) 220.(2)221.(4) 222.(4) 223.(1) 224.(2) 225.(2) 226.(2) 227.(5) 228.(1) 229.(3) 230.(4)231.(4) 232.(5) 233.(2) 234.(3) 235.(1) 236.(3) 237.(5) 238.(4) 239.(3) 240.(3)241.(1) 242.(2) 243.(3) 244.(5) 245.(4)246.(1) 247.(4) 248.(3) 249.(5) 250.(4) |
#3
21st May 2015, 11:57 AM
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Re: Corporation Bank PO Model Question paper
I want to apply for post of P.O. in Corporation Bank so please provide me Model Question Papers for preparation of Exam?
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#4
21st May 2015, 12:03 PM
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Re: Corporation Bank PO Model Question paper
Here I am providing you Model Question Papers of P.O. in Corporation Bank for your preparation of Exam. Syllabus of Corporation Bank P.O. Exam: • Reasoning ability • Quantitative aptitude • General awareness • English language Model Question Papers of Corporation Bank P.O. Exam: REASONING ABILITY 1. In a certain code GONE is written as '5%2#' and MEDAL is Witten as '4#38@'. How is GOLD written in that code ? (1) 5@%3 (2) 5%@3 (3) 5#@3 (4) 5%#3 (5) None of these 2. The positions of how many digits in the number '39154326' will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending Order? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 3. Among A, B, C, D and E each having scored diflerent marks, B has scored more marks than E and D, B has not scored the highest marks among them. Who among them scored second fiighest marks ? (1) B (2) C (3) E (4) D (5) Data inadequate 4. In a certain code language 'how old are you' is written as '9 7 3 4' and he is old' is written as '2 7 5'. How is 'he' written in that code language ? (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 2 or 5 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 5. W walked 30 metres towards South, took a leit turn and walked 50 metres, again he. took a left tum and walked 30 metres. How far is he from the starting point ? (1) 80 metres (2) 100 metres (3) 130 metres (4) 50 metres (5) None of these 6. In a certain code BLACK is written as 'ALBKC' and SMART is written as 'AMSTR'. How is CLOCK written in that code ? (1) CLOKE (2) CLOCK (3) OLCKC (4) OLCCK (5) None of these 7. What should come next in the following number series ? 9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 18 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 75 (1) 1 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) 5 (5) None of these 8. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 83416759 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangements? (1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 6 (5) None of these 9. M is brother of K. T is sister of K. R is father of M. J is wife of R. How many sons does J have ? (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 10. In a certain code 'GONE' is written as 'NOEGG' and 'LOAD' is written as 'AODLL'. How is 'SORT written in that code ? (1) ROSTT (2) ROTSS (3) RSTOO (4) OTRSS (5) None of these 11. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONTRAST each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English aiphabet? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 12. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DREO using each letter only once in each word? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 13. Pointing to a boy, Urmila said "He is the son of my grandfather's only daughter". How is Urmila related to the boy ? (1) Mother (2) Matemal Aunt (3) Patemal Aunt (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 14. In a row of forty boys facing North, R is twelfth from the left end and T is eighteenth from the right end. How many boys are between R and T in the row ? (1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 15. Mohit correctly remembers that . his father's birthday is not after eighteenth of April. His sister correctly remembers that their father's birthday is before twentieth but after seventeenth of April. On which day in April was definitely their father' birthday ? (1) Seventeenth (2) Nineteenth (3) Eighteenth (4) Seventeenth or Eighteenth (5) None of these Directions (16-18) : Following questions are based on the five threedigit numbers given below : 528 739 846 492 375 16. Which of the following represents the sum of the first two digits of the highest number ? (1)7 (2)10 (3) 12 (4) 13 (5) None of these 17. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the third digit of the second lowest number ? (1) 8 (2) 9 (3)6 (4) 2 (5) 5 18. If the positions of the first and the third digits of each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the middle digit of the third highest number ? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 9 (5) 7 Directions (19-20) : Study the following Information carefully and answer the questions given below : (i) 'P x Q' means 'P is sister of 9'- (ii) 'P + Q' means 'P is mother of 9'- (iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is father of 9'- (iv) 'P ÷ Q' means 'P is brother of Q'- 19. Which of the following represents W is grandfather of H' ? (1) W + T - H (2) W ÷ T - H (3) W x T + H (4) W÷ T + H (5) None of these 20. Which of the following represents 'M is nephew of R' ? (1) M ÷ T - R (2) R ÷ T - M r (3) R x T + M x J (4) R ÷ T -M ÷J (5) None of these Directions (21-26) : In each of the questions below are given four Statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given Statements disregarding commonly known facts. 21. Statements: All rockets are poles. Some poles are trams. Some trams are ropes. All ropes are tents. Conclusions: I. Some tents are trams. II. Some ropes are rockets. III. Some trams are rockets. IV. Some poles are rockets. (1) Only I and II follow (2) Only I, II and III follow (3) Only I and III follow (4) Only I and IV follow (5) None of these 22. Statements: All dials are mirrors. All mirrors are spoons. Some spoons are decks. Some decks are chairs. Conclusions: I. Some decks are mirrors. II. Some spoons are dials. III. Some decks are dials. IV. Some chairs are spoons. (1) None follows (2) Or.ly I follows (3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows (5) Only IV follows 23. Statements: Some houses are forests. All forests are trees. Some trees are hüls. All hüls are buses. Conclusions: I. Some buses are trees. II. Some trees are houses. III. Some hüls are houses. IV. Some buses are forests. (1) Only I and II follow (2) Only I, II and IV follow (3) Only I, II and III follow (4) All I, II, III and IV foUow (5) None of these 24. Statements: Some lakes are rivers. Some rivers are mountains. Some mountains are books. Some books are papers. Conclusions: I. Some books are rivers. II. Some papers are lakes. III. Some mountains are lakes. IV. No paper is lake. (1) None follows (2) Only either II or IV follows (3) Only II follows (4) Only IV follows (5) Only either II or IV and III follow. 25. Statements: Some tigers are horses. All horses are goats. All goats are dogs. Some dogs are cats. Conclusions: I. Some cats are tigers. II. Some dogs are horses. III. Some goats are tigers. IV. Some cats are horses. (1) Only I and II follow ' (2) Only I, II and III follow (3) Only II and III follow (4) Only II, III and IV follow (5) None of these 26. Statements: All notebooks are pens. No pen is table. Some tables are desks. All desks are tanks. Conclusions: I. Some tanks are pens. II. Some desks are notebooks. 1 III. Some tanks are tables. IV. No tank is pen (1) Only I follows (2) Only III follows (3) Only IV follows (4) Only either I or IV follows (5) Only either I or IV and III follow Directions (27-31) : Study the following Information carefully and answer the questions given below : P, 9, R, S, T. V, W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the cen- ] tre. T is second to the right of R whois third to the right of P. S is second to the left of P and fourth to the right of 9- Z is third to the right of V who isl not an immediate neighbour of P. 27. In which of the following combinations is the first person sitting I in between the second and the third persons ? (l)VTS (2)TZS (3) 9RV (4) PWQ (5) VRT 28. Who is second to the right of T?| (DS (2)Z (3) P (4) R (5) None of these 29. What is P's position with respect] o t S ? (1) Fourth to the left (2) Fourth to the right (3) Fifth to the left (4) Sixth t^the left (5) Third to the right 30. Who is to the immediate left of Z? (DT (2)P (3) S (4) V (5) None of these 31. Who is second to the right of W ? (1) R (2) Q (3) Z (4) S (5) None of these Directions (32-37) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below : W 7 @ I R P 3 9 B A $ 4 H D 5 © M E 2 % T * 8 5 U Q N 1 V 6 # K F 32. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 33. If all the Symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fifteenth from the left end ? (1) E (2) 5 (3) D (4) 2 (5) None of these 34. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a consonant ? (l)None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? ( l ) T * 2 (2)QN5 (3) 3 9 R (4) 6 V K (5) % T E 36. Which ofthe following is the ninth to the right ofthe twenty-second from the right end of the above arrangement ? (1)H (2)# (3)T (4)@ (5) None of these 37. How many such Symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three Directions (38 - 43) : In each question below is given a group of letter followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding System and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e. 'None of these' as your answer. Letter Ii A I) E F Ii ,J K M 1 U o W F p Digit/ Symbol code : 6 S 7 8 # l 2 * % 3 © 4 9 @ 5 ConditJons : (i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, their codes are to be interchanged. (ü) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as '5'. (iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel. 38. EKFUDH . (1)8*#©78 (2) l*-#©78 (3)5*#©75 (4) 1*#©71 (5) None of these 39. JMEIUD (1) 8%83©5 (2) 2%83©2 (3) 7%83©7 (4) 2%83©7 (5) None of these 40. PEJDWU (1)58279© (2)582795 (3) ©8279© (4) 582795 (5) None of these 41. DMEAKJ (1) 7%8$*2 (2) 2%8$*7 (3) 7%8$*7 (4) 5%8$*5 (5) None of these 42. IBHWPO (1) 361954 (2) 461953 (3) 361953 (4) 461954 (5) None of these 43. UKPDMI (1) ©5*7%3 (2) ö*57%5 (3) 3*57%© (4) ©*5%73 (5) None of these Directions (44-49): In the following questions, the Symbols @, ©, %,* and $ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below: 'P © Q' means 'P, Q is not greater than Q' 'P $ Q' means 'P, is not smaller than Q'. "P @ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'. 'P * Q' means 'P is neither equal to nor greater than Q'. 'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q' Now in each of the following questions assuming the given Statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and HI given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. 44. Statements : D @ M, M $ B, B • R, R % T Conclusions : I. B * D II. B@D III. T * M (1) None is true (2) Only I is true (3) Only II is true (4) Only III is true (5) Only either I or II is true 45. Statements : W©F, F@D, D * K, K S J Conclusions : I. K % W II. D$W III. F * K (1) Only I and II are true (2) Only I and III are true (3) Only II and III are true (4) All I, II and III are true (5) None of these 46. Statements : R * K, K © M, M % T, T $ J Conclusions : I. J * M II. R-*M III. K © J (1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only I and II are true (4) All I, II and III are true (5) None" bT these 47. Statements : R@K, T©K, T$M, M *W Conclusions : I. W % K II. M © R III. T © R (1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only III is true (4) All I, II and III are true (5) None of these 48. Statements : T $ N, N % B, B @ W, K © W Conclusions : I. K $ B II. K $ T III. T% B (1) Only I and II are true (2) Only I and III are true (3) Only II and III are true (4) All I, II and III are true (5) None of these 49. Statements : Z % V. V • J, J © M, M @ R Conclusions : I. R % V II. M%V III. Z% M (1) Only I and II are true (2) Only I and III are true (3) Only II and III are true (4) All I, II and III are true (5) None of these Directions (50-55) : Study the following Information carefully and answer the given questions : A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input : gone 93 over 46 84 now for 31 Step I : 31 gone 93 over 46 84 now for Step II : 31 over gone 93 46 84 now for Step III:31 over 46 gone 93 84 now for Step IV : 31 over 46 now gone 93 84 for Step V : 31 over 46 now 84 gone 93 for and Step V is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input. As per the rules fp^lpwed in the above steps. find out jn each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. 50. Step III of an Input : 15 window 29 93 86 sail tower buy Which of the following will be step VI ? (1)15 window 29 tower 86 sail 93 buy (2) 15 window 29-tower 86 93 sail buy (3) 15 window 29 tower 93 86 sail buy (4) There will be no such step. (5) None of these 51. Input : Station hurry 39 67 all men 85 59 How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ? (1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Three (5) None of these 52. Step II of an input is : 49 zone car battery 56 87 71 down Which of the following is definitely the input ? (1) car 49 battery zone 56 87 71 down (2) zone 49 car battery 56 87 71 down (3) battery car 49 zone 56 87 71 down (4) Cannotbe determined. (5) None of these 53. Input : news 79 53 glory for 46 29 task Which of the following will be step IV ? (1) 29 task 46 news 53 glory 79 for (2) 29 task 46 news 53 79 glory for (3) 29 task 46 news 79 53 glory for (4) 29 news 79 53 glory for 46 task (5) None of these 54. Step III of an input is : 27 tubt 34 gas Chamber row 74 53 Which of the following steps will be the last but one ? (1) VI (2) VII (3) VIII (4) V (5) None of these 55. Step II of an input is : 19year 85 74 near gone 26 störe How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ? (1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) Five (5) None of these Directions (56 - 6 0 ) : Study the following Information carefully and answer the questions given below : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight students of a school. They study in Standard VI, VII, and VIII with not more than three in any Standard. Each of them has a favourite subject from Physics, Geography, English, Marathi, Mathernatics, Chemistry, Biology and Economics but not necessarily in the same order. D likes Chemistry and studies in Standard VIII with only H. B does not study in Standard VII. E and A study in the same Standard but not with B C and F study in the same Standard Those who study in Standard VI do not like Mathernatics or Biology. F likes Physics. The one who studies in Standard VIII likes English. C does not like Geography. A's favourite subject is Marathi and G does not like Biology. 56. Which subject does H like ? (1) English (2) Marathi (3) Science (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 57. What is G's favourite subject ? (1) Biology (2) Physics (3) Marathi (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 58. What is Cs favourite subject ? (1) Economics (2) Biology (3) English (4) Geography (5) Data inadequate 59. Which of the following combinations of student-Standard. Subject is correct ? (1) C - VII - Economics (2) D - VI - Chemistry (3) G - VII - Physics (4) B - VIII - Mathernatics (5) None is correct 60. Which of the following group of students study in VII Standard? (1) EAF (2) EGC (3) EAG (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Directions (61-70) : Study the' following information carefully and an- j swer the questions given below : The candidate must— (i) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55 percent marks. (ü) have a post graduate degree/diploma in Marketing Management with at least 60 percent marks. (iii) have post qualification work experience of at least five years in the marketing division of an Organisation (iv) have secured at least 45 percent marks in the selection examination (v) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the selection interview. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions except— (a) at (iii) above, but has post qualification work experience of at least three years as Deputy Marketing Manager, the case is to be referred to GM-Marketing. (b) at (v) above, but has secured at least 60 percent marks in the selection examination, the case is to be referred to VP-Marketing. In each qu beestionlow, details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the Information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the Information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.05.2010. Mark answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected. Mark answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected. Mark answer (3) if the case is to be referred to GM-Marketing. Mark answer (4) if the case is to be referred to VP-Marketing. Mark answer (5) if the data provided are not adequale to take a decision. 61. Nidhi Agrawal has secured 60 percent marks in the selection interview and 40 percent marks in the selection examination. She has been working in the marketing division of an Organisation for the past eight years after completing her post graduate degree in marketing management with 65 per cent marks. She has secured 59 percent marks in B.Sc. 62. Navin Desai has secured 56 percent marks in B.A. He has been working in the marketing division of an Organisation for the past seven years alter completing his post graduate degree in marketing with 62 percent marks. He has secured 62 percent marks in the selection examination and 38 percent marks in the selection interview. 63. Sabina Handa has been working for the past four years as Deputy Marketing Manager in an Organisation after completing her post graduate diploma in marketing management with 65 percent marks. She has secured 45 percent marks in both selection examination and selection interview. She has also secured 58 percent marks in B.Com. 64. Manoj Malhotra has secured 65 percent m a r k S c . ands i n B . 6 0 percent marks in post graduate degree in marketing management. He has also secured 50 percent marks in both selection examination and selection interview. He has been working in the marketing division of an Organisation for the past six years after completing his post graduation in marketing. 65. Varsha Akolkar has secured 59 percent marks in B.A. She has secured 42 percent marks in the selection interview and 48 percent marks in the selection examination. She has been working in the marketing division of an Organisation for the past seven years after completing her post graduation in marketing management with 57 percent marks. . 66. Utpal Goswami has been working in the marketing division of an Organisation for the past five years after completing his post graduate diploma in marketing management with 65 percent marks. He is a first class science graduate with 60 percent marks. He has secured 45 percent marks in the selection examination and 40 percent marks in the selection interview 67. Anindita Ghosh has been working for the past eight years in an Organisation after completing her post graduate degree in marketing management with 70 percent marks. She has secured 56 percent marks in B.A. She has also secured 50 percent marks in the selection examination and 45 percent marks in the selection interview. 68. Samir Phukan has been working In the marketing division of an Organisation for the past five years after completing his post graduate diploma in management with 65 percent marks. He has secured 60 percent marks in B. Com. He has also secured 50 percent marks in both selection examination and selection interview. 69. Nimisha Patil has secured 59 percent marks in B.Com. She has also secured 50 percent marks in both selection examination and the selection interview She has been working as De Marketing Manager in an orgonaisation for the past three years after completing her post graduate degree in marketing management with 63 percent marks. 70. Sadashiv Ghatge has secured 60 percent marks in B.Com. He has been working for the past five years in the marketing division of an Organisation after completing his post graduate degree in marketing management with 68 per cent marks. He has secured 35 percent marks in the selection interview and 62 percent marks in the selection examination. Directions (71-75) : In each question below is given a Statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the Statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implict in the Statement. Glve answer (1) if only Assumption I is implicit. Give answer (2) if only Assumption II is implicit. Give answer (3) if either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit. Glve answer (4) if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit. Give answer (5) if both Assumptions 1 and II are implict. 71. Statement: The largest domestic airlines corporation has announced new summer schedules in which more number of flights in trunk routes are introduced. Assumptions: I. Mbre number of passengers may travel by this airlines corporation during summer months in trunk routes. 72 73 11. Other airlines mber of flights in all thecompanies may increase the nu sectors. Statement: The chairman of the Company decided to hold a grand Function to celebrate silver jubilee during the next weekend and invited a large number of guests. Assumptions: I. The Company officials may be to make all the necespreparations for the siljubilee celebration. II. Majority of the guests invited by the chairman may attend the function. Statement: The largest Computer manufacturing Company slashed the prlces of most of the desktop models by about 15 percent with immediate effect. Assumptions: I. The Company may incur heavy losses due to reduction in prices of the desktop. II. The sales of desktop manufactured by the Company may increase substantially in the near future. 74. Statement: The School authority decided to rent out the school premises during Weekends and holidays for organising various functions to augment its resources to meet the growing needs of the school. Assumptions : I. The parents of the school students may protest against the decision of the school authority. II. There may not be enough demand for hiring the school premises for organising functions. Statement: The local civic body has urged all the residents to voluntarily reduce consumption of potable water by about 30 percent to tide over the water crisis. Assumptions: 75. 1. II Many residents may reduce consumption of potable water. Many activists may welcome the civic body's move and spread awareness among residents. Directions (76-80) : In each question below is given a Statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the Information given in the Statement, you have to assume everything in the Statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow (s) for pursuing. Give answer (1) if only course of action I follows. Give answer (2) if only course of action II follows. Give answer (3) if either course of action I or II follows. Give answer (4) if neither course of action I nor II follows. Give answer (3) if both courses of action I and II follow 76. Statement : There have been sporadic cases of stone throwing and damaging vehicles in the locality during the day following altercation between two local youth clubs last night. Courses of action I. The local police administration should arrest all those who are caught committing these acts. II. The local police administration should call a meeting of office bearers of both the clubs of the locality to bring the Situation under control. 77. Statement: A huge truck overturned on the middle of the main road and blocked most part of the road causing a huge traffic jam. Courses of action I. The traffic department should immediately deploy its personnel to divert traffic through other roads. II. The traffic department should immediately send men and equipment to move the truck and clear the road. 78. Statement: Some workers of the Company making diamond jewellery were caught while they were leaving the premises as they were trying to smuggle small pieces of diamonds hidden in their purses. Courses of action I. The management of the company should immediately put on hold all activities in the premises tili a fool proof security System is in place. II. The belongings of all the workers should thoroughly be searched before they leave the premises of the Company. 79. Statement : A huge tidal wave swept away many fishing boats and hutments of the fishermen living along the coastline. Courses of action: I. The fishermen should henceforth be restrained from construeting their huts along the. coast line. II. The local administration should send a team of officials to assess the extent of damage and suggest remedial measures. 80. Statement : A large number of L invitees who attended the mar- i riage function feil ill due to food poisoning and were rushed to various hospitals located in the area. Courses of action I. The government should ban such marriage functions till further notice. II. The local hospitals should be advised by the government to provide best Services to the affected people. Directions (81-85) : Below is given a passage followed by severall possible inferences which can bei drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of thel passage and decide upon its degree off truth or falsity. Mark answer (1) if the inference is 'definitely true', i.e. it properly fol-j lows from the Statement of facts given. Mark answer (2) if the inference is 'probably true' though not 'definitely true' in the light of the facts given Mark answer (3) if the 'data are inadequate', i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true of false. Mark answer (4) if the inference is 'probably false", thought not definitely false' in the light of the facts given 11. Other airlines companies may also increase the number of flights in all the sectors. Statement: The chairman of the Mark answer (5) if the inference is 'definitely false' i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts. Asia has become the growth centre of the world economy in recent years. Within the region, India and South Korea are the third and fourth largest economies after China and Japan. Though the Asian growth stories mainly revolve around India and China, South Korea has remained a key player for these countries as one of their major trading and investment partners. South Korea adopted outward-oriented economic policies with the beginning of, its first five year economic development plan in 1962 which resulted in high growth and the integration of the Korean economy with the rest of the world. Subsequently high and consistent economic growth made South Korea one of the high-income economies is Asia. Korea is still growing at a faster rate compared to other developed economies. India on the other hand, adopted an import Substitution policy since its Independence until the early 1990s. Since then India has introduced wide-ranging economic policy reforms and is moving towards markel-driven economy. This has resulted in consistent high economic growth overlhe last one-and-a half decade. 81. Only Korean economy is considered as robust by the international Community. 82. Japan's economic growth over the last decade is the highest in Asia. 83. The Korean economy is traditionally different than the India economy in its approach. 84. The economic growth of India prior of 1990s was much higher than the present growth rate. 85. India and China together are considered the driving force of Asian economy. Directions (86 - 100): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ? Problem Kigurci» Aasv7crFiju.es 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE Directions (101-105) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ? 101. 7960 + 2956 - 8050 + 4028 = ? (1)6984 (2)6884 (3)6894 (4)6954 (5) None of these 102. 25 x 3.25 + 50.4 ÷ 24 = ? (1) 84.50 (2) 83.35 (3) 83.53 (4) 82.45 (5) None of these 103. 350% of ? ÷ 50 + 248 = 591 (1) 4900 (2) 4890 (3) 4850 (4) 4950 (5) None of these (1)5 p.c.p.a. (2)4 p.c.p.a. (3)6 p.c.p.a. (4)8 p.c.p.a. (5) None of these 112. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 150% and the denominator of the fraction is increased by 350%, the resultant fraction is what is the original fraction ? (5) None of these 113. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'BANKING' be arranged ? (1)5040 (2)2540 (3) 5080 (4) 2520 (5) None of these 114. Meenal purchased a car for Rs. 2,50,000 and sold it for Rs. 3,48,000. What is the per cent profit she made on the car? (1)40 (2)39.2 (3) 38.4 (4) 38 (5) None of these 115. There are some parrots and some tigers in a forest. If the total number of animal heads in the forest are 858 and total number of animal legs are 1,746, what is the number of parrots in the forest ? (1)845 (2)833 (3) 800 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Directions (116 - 120): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it. Number of Entertainment Shows held in various cities in a year (Number in Hundreds) Shows Cities Dance Music Drama Stand up Comedy Mirnicry M 15 21 24 0.8 0.9 N 12.4 13 26 2 0.5 O 5.7 8 12 0.3 0.2 P 11.3 6 18 1 1.5 Q 17 12.4 11 3 0.4 R 14 10.5 9.8 0.7 0.1 116. The mirnicry shows held in city M are what per cent of the drama shows held in city O ? (1) 7 (2) 8.5 (3) 6.5 (4) 8 (5) None of these 117. What is the average number of entertainment shows hel'd in city P ? (1) 756 (2) 678 (3) 786 (4) 698 (5) None of these 118. If the number of music shows in cities N and Q is increased by 5%, what will be the total number of music shows in both the cities together ? (1) 2,602 (2) 2,667 (3) 2,540 (4) 2,605 (5) None of these 119. What is the respective ratio of the number of dance shows held in city N to the number of drama I shows held in city R ? (1) 49 : 62 (2) 49 : 51 (3) 62 : 45 (4) 62 : 49 (5) None of these 120. What is the total number of stand I up comedy shows held in all the cities together ? (1) 820 (2) 740 (3) 780 (4) 810 (5) None of these than th of 1008 ? (1) 154 (2) 146 (3) 165 (4) 158 (5) None of these |
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21st May 2015, 12:03 PM
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Re: Corporation Bank PO Model Question paper
122. There are two numbers such that the sum of twice the first number and thrice the second num- 104. of 3842 + 15% of ? = 2449 (1) 3520 (2) 3250 (3) 3350 (4) 3540 (5) None of these 105. (833.25 - 384.45) ÷ 24 = ? (1)1.87 (2)20.1 (3)2.01 (4)18.7 (5) None of these Directions (106-110) : What should come in place of the questioi mark (?) in the following number se ries. 108.325 314 292 259 215 ? (1)126 (2)116 (3) 130 (4) 160 (5) None of these 107. 45 46 70 141 ? 1061.5 (1)353 (2)353.5 (3)352.5 (4)352 (5) None of these 108. 620 632 608 644 596 ? (1)536 (2)556 (3) 656 (4) 646 (5) None of these 109. 15 25 40 65 ? 195 (1)115 (2)90 (3) 105 (4) 120 (5) None of these 110. 120 320 ? 2070 5195 13007.! (1)800 (2)920 (3) 850 (4) 900 (5) None of these 111. Sonika invested an amount of Rs 5,800 for 2 years. At what rat of Compound interest will she ge an amount of Rs. 594.5 at th end of two years ? 121. By how much is th of 968 less ber is 100 and the sum of thrice the flrst number and twice the second number is 120. Which is the larger number ? (1) 32 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 35 (5) None of these 123. When all the students in a school are made to stand in rows of 54, 30 such rows are formed. If the students are made to stand in the rows of 45, how many such rows can be formed ? (1) 25 (2) 42 (3) 36 (4) 32 (5) None of these 124. The ratio of the present ages of Anju and Sandhya is 13 : 17 respectively. Four years ago the respective ratio of their ages was 11 : 15. What will be the respective ratio of their ages six years hence ? (1) 3 : 4 (2) 7 : 8 (3) 5 : 4 (4) 6 : 5 (5) None of these 125. The average age of 80 boys in a class is 15 years. The average age of a group of 15 boys in the class is 16 years and the average age of another 25 boys in the class is 14 years. What is the average age of the remaining boys in the class ? (1) 15.25 years (2) 14 years (3) 14.75 years (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Directions (126-130) : Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the questions given below it. Percentage of Obese men, Obese women and Obese children in a State in various years Total Number of Men, Women and Children in the State over the years Years Men Women Children 2004 54,000 38,000 15,000 2005 75,000 64,000 21,000 2006 63,000 60,000 12,000 2007 66,000 54,000 16,000 2007 70,000 68,000 20,000 2009 78,000 75,000 45,000 126. What was the approximate average of obese men, obese women and obese children in the year 2007? (1) 12,683 (2) 12,795 (3) 12,867 (4) 12,843 (5) 12,787 127. The number of obese men in the year 2009 was what per cent of the men not suffering from obesity in the same year ? (1) 55 (2) 60 (3) 50.5 (4) 65.5 (5) None of these 128. What was the respective ratio of the obese women in the year 2006 to the obese men in the year 2008 ? (1) 6 : 7 (2) 21 : 65 (3) 15 : 73 (4) 48 : 77 (5) None of these 129. What is the difference between the number of obese women and obese children together in the year 2006 and the number of obese-men in the same year ? (1) 5,475 (2) 5,745 „ (3) 5,045 (4) 5,075 (5) None of these 130. What was the total number of children not suffering from obesity in the year 2004 and 2005 together? (1) 4,350 (2) 31,560 (3) 4,530 (4) 31,650 (5) None of these Direction (131-135): Study the following Information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Out of the 15,000 candidates eligible for an Officer's Post in a Public Sector Bank, 450 candidates have prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks in r r a l areas only. 25% of the total number of cuandidates have prior experience o f i n g w o r k i n Public Sector Banks in urban areas only. 12% of the total number of candidates have prior experience of working in Private Sector Banks in urban areas only. 2% of the total number of candidates have prior experience of working in Private Sector Banks in rural areas only. 3,600 candidates have worked in Public Sector Banks in both urban and rural areas. 15% of the total number of candidates have worked in both Public and Private Sector Banks in urban areas only. 600 candidates have worked in both Public and Private Sector Banks in rural areas only. The remaining candidates have no prior experience of working in the Banking industry. 131. How many candidates have prior experience of working in rural areas (both Public Sector and Private Sector Banks together) ? (1) 4,350 (2) 4,950 (3) 4,800 (4) 4,900 (5) 4,850 132. How many total candidates have prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks (Urban and Rural areas together)? (1) 12.450 (2) 8,400 (3) 10,050 (4) 10.650 (5) None of these 133. What is the respective ratio of the candidates who have a prior experience of working in Public Sector banks in rural areas only to the candidates who have a prior experience of working in Private Sector banks in rural areas only ? (1) 4 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 4 (5) None of these 134. What is the total number of candidates who have worked in Private Sector banks in urban areas ? , [ (1) 1.800 (2) 2,250 (3) 4,050 (4) 3,600 (5) None of these 135. The candidates who have no prior experience of working in the banking industry are what per cent of the candidates who have worked in Public Sector banks in both urban and rural areas together ? (1) 60.5 (2) 63.5 (3) 62 (4) 64 (5) None of these Directions (136-140): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it. Percentage of Marks Obtained by Various Students in Various Subjects in an Examination MARKS Students English out of 100 Hindi out of 100 Science out of 150 History out of 60 Maths out of 150 Geography out of 40 A 68 75 82 60 96 55 B 88 73 . 85 65 88 65 C 75 56 72 75 75 80 D 70 66 80 80 72 62 E 72 60 . 68 74 68 75 F 85 70 90 70 74 70 136. What is approximate overall percentage obtained by C in the examination ? (1) 78 (2) 69 (3) 75 (4) 71 (5) 65 137. What is the difference in the marks obtained by B in English and Maths together and the marks obtained by F in the same subjects ? (1) 24 (2) 17 (3) 15 (4) 28 (5) None of these 138. The marks obtained by E in Geography are what per cent of the marks obtained by E in Hindi ? (1) 45 (2) 55 (3) 50 (4) 60 (5) None of these 139. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by D in History and Geography together ? (1) 73.40 (2) 72.80 (3) 70.50 (4) 68.80 (5) None of these 140. What is the average marks obtained by all the students together in Science ? (1) 77.16 (2) 120.50 (3) 118 (4) 121 (5) None of these Directions (141-145): Study the following Graph carefully and,answer the questions given below : Number of Students Studying in different Universities in a year (Number in lakhs) UNIVERSIT IES 141. What is the average number of females in all the universities together ? (1) 33,00,000 (2) 3,50,000 (3) 3,20,000 (4) 32,00.000 (5) None of these 142. What is the total number of students (males & females together) in universities P and R together? (1) 13,00,000 (2) 13,50,000 (3) 14,00,000 (4) 1,45,00,000 (5) None of these 143. What is the respective ratio of the number of females from univer-1 sities P and Q together to the number of males in the universities R and T together ? (1) 27 : 32 (2) 27 : 28 (3) 25 : 28 (4) 28 : 27 (5) None of these 144. The number of males in university Q are what per cent of the total number of students (males & females together) in universily S ? (1) 68 (2) 62 (3) 66 (4) 64 (5) None of these 145. If the total number of males in university T increases by 50%. what would be the total number of students (males & females together) in that university ? (1) 75,26,000 (2) 7,62,50,000 (3) 76,25,000 (4) 7,52,60,000 (5) None of these Directions (146-150) : What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value). 146. 57% of 394 - 2.5% of 996 = ? (1) 215 (2) 175 (3) 200 (4) 180 (5) 205 147. 96.996 x 9.669 + 0.96 = ? (1) 860 (2) 870 (3) 1020 (4) 940 (5) 1100 148. (1) 7 (2) 12 (3) 9 (4) 4 (5) 15 149. (1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 24 (4) 21 (5) 9 150. (638 + 9709 - 216) ÷26 = ? (1) 275 (2) 365 (3) 420 (4) 300 (5) 390 ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (151-165) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. There are various sectors in India that are to be assessed for their strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. The total population is over 1 billion which will increase to 1.46 billion by 2035 to cross China. The huge population will result in higher unemployment and deterioration of quality. Literacy, in India is yet another factor to be discussed. According to 1991 census, 64.8% of the population was illiterate. The major downtrend of education is due to child labour which has spread all over India and this should be totally eradicated by way of surveillance and a good educational System implemented properly by the Government. Pollution is one more threat to the environment and for the country's prospects. This has been experienced more in urban areas mainly in metropolitan cities. The water pollution by the sewage seepage into the ground water and improper maintenance will lead to various diseases which in turn will affect the next generation. In most of the cities there is no proper sewage disposal. The Government has to take effective steps to control population which, in turn, will minimize the pollution. Poverty questions the entire strength of India's political view and minimizes the energetic way of approach. The shortfall of rains, enormous floods, unexpected famine, drought, earthquake and the recent tsunami hit the country in a negative way. The proactive approach through effective research and analytical study helps us to determine the effects in advance. Proper allocation of funds is a prerequisite. In developed countries like. U.S., Japan precautionary methods are adopted to overcome this, but 1t has to be improved a lot in our Systems. Increased population is one of the major reasons for poverty and the Government is unable to allocate funds for basic needs to the Society. India has nearly 400 million people living below the poverty line and 90% of active population is in informal eccnomy. The children are forced to vvork due to their poverty and differential caste System. They work in match industry for daily wages, as servants, mechanics, stone breakers, agricultural workers, etc. To prevent child labour. existing laws which favour the Anti Child Labour Act should be implemented by the Government vigorously. More population results in cheap cost by virtue of the demand supply concept. Most of the foreign countries try to utilize this factor by outsourcing their business in India with a very low capital. According to U.S., India is a "Knowledge pool" with cheap labour. The major advantage is our communication and technical skill which is adaptable to any environment. The cutting edge skill in IT of our Professionals helps the outsourcing cornpanies to commensurate with the needs of the consumers in a short span. The major competitors for India are China and Philippines and by the way of an effective communication and expert technical ability, Indians are ahead of «the race. The major Metropolitan states are targeting the outsourcing field vigorously by giving various amenities to the outsourcing companies like tax concession, allotting land etc.. to start their businesses in its cities without any hurdles. Thereby most of the MNCs prefer India as their destinations and capitalize the resources to maximize their assets. Infrastructure is another k eyfactor for an outsourcing Company to start a business in a particular city. 1t includes road, rail, ports, power and watcr. The increased input in infrastructure in India is very limited where China's record is excellent. India in earlier days gave more importance to the development of industry and less importance to other departments. But the scenario has quite changed now-a-days by allocating a special budget of funds for security. This is because of the frightening increase in terrorism all around the world especially emerging after the 9/11 terror attack in U.S. In the last ten years, budget towards the development of military forces is higher when compared to others. It shows that the threat from our neighbouring countries is escalating. India has to concentrate more on this security lactor to wipe out the problem in the way of cross-border terrorism. Making India, a developed country in 2020 is not an easy task. India has to keep in check a variety of factors in order to progress rapidly. To quote China as an example is that they; demolished an old bt'ilding to constrnct a very big port to meet future demands, but India is still waitingfor things to happen. The profits gained by India through various sectors are to be spent for the development and welfare of the country. India's visiotiS for a brighter path will come true not only by mere words or speech, but extra effort needed at all levels to overcome the pitfalls. 151. Which of the following, accord-fl ing to the author, is/are a result(s) of increased population in India ? (A) Pollution (B) Poverty (C) Unemployment (1) Only(A) (2) Only (A) and (B) (3) Only (B) (4) Only (A) and (C) (5) All (A),(B) and (C) 152. Why, according to the author, has the Indian Government allotted more funds to strengthen the military forces ? (1) To improve security in order to counter increasing terrorism (2) As the security in India over the past ten years was grossly inadequate (3) As the U.S. too has strength- . ened its military forces after the 9/11 attack (4) As the industry is developed enough and is not in need of any more funds (5) Noneofthese 153. What is the author's main objective in writing this passage ? (1) To exhort the Government to garner support from its neighbouring countries (2) To suggest to the Government to follow China's example blindly thereby bringing about rapid development (3) To highlight the plight of the poor (4) To discuss the problems of child labour and suggest suitable remedies (5) To bring forth the problems associated with the India's development and to suggest measures to counter them 154. Why, according to the author, is India one of the favourite destinations for investment by outsourcing companies ? (A) Shorter response time for Clients (B) Better technical skills (C) Availability of cheap labour (1) Only(C) (2) All (A), (B) and (C) (3) Only (B) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) Only (A) 155. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage ? (A) India leads the way in the amount invested in the development of infrastructure. (B) Political System in India is not influenced by poverty (C) lndian population would increase by approximately 5O per cent in the next twenty five years. (l)Only(A) and(B) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C) (4) Only (B) and (C) (5) All (A), (B) and (C) 156. Which of the following is/are the facility(ies) available to MNCs investing in India ? (A) Easy availability of land (B) Better infrastructure than China. (C) Tax Concessions (1) Only(C) (2) All(A),(B)and (C) (3) Only (A) and (B) (4) Only (A) and (C) (5) None of these 157. Which of the following, according to the author, is a result of poverty in India ? (1) Lack of a robust security System (2) Child labour and the resulting dearth of educated youth (3) Floods, famines and other calamities (4) Rapid increase in population (5) None of these 164. DIFFERENTIAL (1) solitude (2) homogeneous (3) synonymous (4) unique (5) different 165. VIGOROUSLY (1) simply (2) regularly (3) roughly (4) softly (5) leniently Directions (166 - 170): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required mark (5) as the answer. 166. Banks Charge differently rate of interest depending on the size of the loan. (1) difference in rate of interests (2) differently what rate of interest (3) different rates of interest (4) the different rate of interest (5) No correction required 167. It is necessary that we take any steps to reduce pollution soon. (1) we should take every (2) we have taken no (3) us to take any (4) we take some (5) No correction required 168. It is too early to say how the impact the new tax will have on investors (1) what impact (2) that the impact (3) how much impacts (4) what are the impacts of (5) No correction required 169. Kindly ask his advice regarding the various health insurance policies presently available. (1) him to advice that (2) regarding his advice (3) that he should advice (4) about his advice (5) No correction required 170. Unfortunately many of our lowns and cities do have more good transportation System. (1) have agood (2) not have good (3) not have much good (4) not having better (5) No correction required 158. How, according to the author, can the effects 'of floods, famines, drought, etc. be minimized ? (1) By limiting pollution thereby reducing the chances of such events taking place . (2) By educating the children about the ill effects of such calamities who in turn Will help during the time of need (3) By following the U.S. System of providing relief to its Citizens (4) By allotting proper funds for research which can predict the outcome of such calamities and thus design relief measures (5) None of these Directions (159-162) : Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage 159. SURVEILLANCE (l)spying (2) cameras (3) security (4) Observation (5) alertness 160. PREREQUISITE (1) result (2) association (3) necessity (4) factor (5) mystery 161. PROSPECTS (1) assimilation (2) demand (3) future (4) brochure (5) diagnosis 162. COMMENSURATE (1) match (2) extracting (3) contemplating (4) request (5) employing Directions (163-165) : Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage 163. LIMITED (1) abundant (2) complete (3) flowing (4) inadequate (5) encompassing Directions (171-175) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below : (A) With all the bid information being available and tracked online, corruption has considerably reduced. (B) Today, most i.e. over ninety-flve percent household, in the city enjoy broad band connection. (C) All city contracts are now bid for online (D) Over twenty years ago the city government, central government and the private sector made a concerted effort to shift the economy to include IT (E) As our cities to expand and become more complex, such a System will make governance more manageable (F) This level of connectedness has changed not only the city's economy but also how it is governed and how business is conducted. 171. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E 172. Which oflhe following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) F 173. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (1) A (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F 174. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E 175. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ? (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F Directions (176-185) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any) 176. Some genuine issues exist (1)/ with the newly adopted (2)/ System and needs to (3)/ be examined seriously (4).' No error (5) 177. Whether or not to confront (1)/ them about their role (2)/ in the matter is a decision (3)/ which is yet to take (4). No error (5) 178. The government is still in the (1)/ process of finalized new policy (2)/ guidelines for the allocation of land (3)/ to private sector organizations (4). No error (5) 179. According to government estimates (1)/ at least four million tonnes of sugar (2)/ will have to be imported (3)/ this year because of the poor monsoon (4). No error (5) 180. In our experience people usually (1)/ value things that they have to (2)/ pay off more than those that (3)/ they receive free of cost (4). No error (5) 181. At present China is the (1)/ world's leader manufacturer (2)/ of environment friendly products (3)/ such as electric cars and bicycles (4). No error (5) 182. Over eighty per cent from us (1)/ feel that if we had taken (2)/ some corrective measures earlier (3)/ the crisis would have been averted (4). No error (5) 183. The manager of that city branch (1)/ cannot handle it with the help of (2)/ only two personnel as (3)/ business has increased substantially (4). No error (5) 184. With the liieracy rates in this (1)/ region as low as ten percent (2)/ we need to encourage (3)/ local people to build schools (4). No error (5) 185. While providing such facilities (1)/ online makes ii convenient (2)/ and easily accessible for customers (3)/ we face several chaHenges (4). No error (5) Directions (186-190): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four wordt printed in bold may be either wrongly speit or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly speit or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your an-l swer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly speit and also approprlate in the context of the sentence, markS (5) i.e. 'All correct as your answer. ] 186. The bank's fluctuating (1)/ performance over the prior (2)/ year has been a major (3) cause (4| for concern. All correct (5) 187. An economy relies (1)/ on iufl access (2)/ to dependable (3) and affordable (4) sources of anergM All correct (5) 188. Researches have used data! prevalent(l)/ to manufacturing companies to illustrate (2)/ the harmful (3) impacts (4) of technonology on the environment. All« correct(5) 189. Such a Situation (1)/ is neither feesible (2)/ nor desirable (3)in a democratic country like ours (4). All correct (5) 190. The gradual (1) / withdrawal (2)/ of such safety (3) mechanisims (4) will affect small and medium! industries the most. All correct( 5) Directions ( 191- 200) : In the following passage there are blanks. each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each. five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. The world's climate has always changed and species have evolved accordingly to survive it. The surprisfl ingfact about the (191) between evo lution and global warming (192) that it is not liner. (193) temperatures alone are not (194) of evolution. Evolution is also the (195) of seasonal changes As the environment (196) those spefl cies which don't adapt (197) to exist. 1 But the sheer (198) of manmade climate change today is (1991. 'Bad things are happening' and by one (200) global warming could threaLen upto one-third of the world's species if left unchecked. In fact a lot of the species which will be able io survive are the ones we consider pests like insectsl and weeds. 191. (1) difference (2) similarity (3) argument (4) relationship (5) alllance 192. (1) being (2) seema (3) mainly (4) besides (5) is 193. (1) However (2) Mounted (3) Rising (4) Elevating (5) Inclining 194. (1) means (2) triggers (3) responses (4) threats (5) Stimulus 195. (1) results (2) precursor (3) resistance (4) cause (5) provocation 196. (1) conserves (2) stilles (3) predicts (4) changes (5) emerges 197. (l)continue (2) halt (3) cease (4) terminate (5) discontinue 198. (1) luck (2) value (3) collapse (4) pace (5) attention 199. (1) threatened (2) pursued (3) unprecedented (4) record (5) debated 200. (1) forecast (2) chance (3) pattern (4) occasion (5) imagination A N S W E R S 1. (2) 2. (5) 3. (5) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (5) 20. (4) 21. (4) 22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (5) 27. (5) 28. (2) 29.(4) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32.(1) 33.(1) 34. (2) 35. (4) 36. (3) 37. (5) 38. (5) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (4) 42. (1) 43. (5) 44. (5) 45. (4) 46. (3) 47. (5) 48. (5) 49.(1) 50. (1) 51. (2) 52. (4) 53. (2) 54. (4) 55. (2) 56. (1) 57. (5) 58. (1) 59. (5) 60. (3) 61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (3) 64. (1) 65. (2) 66.(1) 67. (1) 68.(1) 69. (3) 70. (4) 71. (1) 72. (5) 73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (5) 76. (2) 77. (5) 78. (2) 79. (5) 80. (2) 81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (1) 84. (5) 85. (1) 86. (4) 87. (5) 88. (2) 89. (1) 90. (3) 91. (3) 92. (3) 93. (4) 94. (5) 95. (2) 96.(4) 97. (5) 98. (3) 99.(1) 100. (2) 101. (3) 102. (2) 103. (1) 104. (1) 105. (4) 106. (4) 107. (2) 108. (3) 109. (5) 110. (5) 111. (1) 112. (3) 113. (4) 114. (2) 115. (5) 116. (5) 117. (1) 118. (2) 119. (4) 120. (3) 121. (5) 122. (4) 123. (3) 124. (5) 125. (1) 126. (3) 127. (2) 128. (4) 129. (1) 130. (4) 131. (2) 132. (4) 133. (2) 134. (3) 135. (5) 136. (4) 137. (1) 138. (3) 139. (2) 140. (5) 141. (1) 142. (5) 143. (2) 144. (4) 145. (3) 146. (3) 147. (4) 148. (4) 149. (2) 150. (5) 151. (5) 152. (1) 153. (5) 154. (2) 155. (3) 156. (4) 157. (2) 158. (4) 159. (4) 160. (3) 161. (3) 162. (1) 163. (1) 164. (2) 165. (4) 166. (3) 167. (4) 168. (1) 169. (5) 170. (3) 171. (4) 172. (2) 173. (5) 174. (1) 175. (4) 176. (3) 177. (4) 178. (2) 179. (1) 180. (3) 181. (2) 182. (1) 183. (5) 184.(1) 185. (5) 186. (2) 187. (5) 188. (1) 189. (2) 190. (4) 191. (4) 192. (5) 193. (3) 194. (1) 195. (2) 196. (4) 197. (3) 198. (4) 199. (5) 200. (1) |
#6
2nd June 2016, 05:37 PM
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sknmodqk@gmail.com
Sustain the excellent job and generating the group!
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#7
17th June 2016, 07:07 PM
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jbabslx@gmail.com
You actually make it seem so easy with your presentation but I find this topic to be really something that I think I would never understand. It seems too complex and very broad for me. I am looking forward for your next post, I?l try to get the hang of it!
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