BSNL JTO Previous Year Papers

Will you please give here the sample paper of the BSNL JTO examination for civil department ?

[Quick Sam]

As you want I am here providing you sample paper of the BSNL JTO examination for civil department.

Sample paper :
sample paper of the BSNL JTO examination for civil department
1. A brick laid with its length across the wall is
known as a
a. stretcher
b. header
c. closer
d. bat
2. Which of the following is not a mobile crane
type?
a. Bottom slewing tower crane
b. Telescopic-boom truck mounted crane
c. Crawler crane
d. Lattice-boom truck mounted crane
3. A principal plane is a plane of
a. minimum tensile stress
b. maximum tensile stress
c. maximum shear stress
d. zero shear stress
4. (i) Rapid hardening Portland cement is used
in mass concrete construction for lowering
the heat of hydration.
(ii) Rapid hardening Portland cement is
blended cement.
Which of the following option is correct?
a. (i) is false and (ii) is true
b. (i) is true and (ii) is false
c. Both (i) and (ii) are false
d. Both (i) and (ii) are true
5. Which of the following statement is true?
a. The nominal dimension of a brick is
greater than its specified dimension by
thickness of the mortar joint.
b. The nominal dimension of a brick is less
than its specified dimension by thickness
of the mortar joint.
c. The nominal dimension of a brick is equal
to its specified dimension.
d. The nominal dimension of a brick is less
than its specified dimension by twice the
thickness of the mortar joint.
6. Which of the following equipment is used
primarily to excavate below the natural ground
surface on which it rests?
a. Dozer
b. Scrapper
c. Hoe
d. Jaw crusher
7. The phenomenon in which, some of the water
in the mix tends to rise to the surface of
freshly placed concrete is known as 1
a. flash set
b. bleeding
c. setting
d. hydration
8. In a network diagram, the early start time of an
activity is
a. the minimum of the late finish times of all
its immediate predecessors
b. the minimum of the early finish times of
all its immediate predecessors
c. the maximum of the late finish times of all
its immediate predecessors
d. the maximum of the early finish times of
all its immediate predecessors
9. Which of the following compound is most
widely used as accelerating admixture in
concrete?
a. Sugar
b. Calcium chloride
c. Soluble zinc salts
d. Synthetic detergents
10. Which method of compaction is appropriate
for sand?
a. Impact
b. Pressure
c. Vibration
d. Kneading
BSNL JTO(CE)-2009
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SECTION-I
QUESTION NUMBER 1-20
CARRY 1 MARK EACH
11. Partial safety factor for concrete and steel in
limit state method of design of RC structures
are assumed as
a. 1.35 and 1.2 respectively
b. 1.14 and 1.25 respectively
c. 1.08 and 1.25 respectively
d. 1.5 and 1.15 respectively
12. Which of the following is not a soft wood?
a. Oak
b. Fir
c. Pine
d. Spruce
13. In a network diagram, the total float of an
activity is equal to
a. (Late finish time) — (Late start time)
b. (Late finish time) — (Early finish time)
c. (Early finish time) — (Early start time)
d. (Late start time) — (Early finish time)
14. As per IS 456 : 2000, the maximum spacing of
steel bars in a reinforced concrete solid slab is
a. 300 mm
b. 450 mm
c. 3 times effective depth or 300mm
whichever is less
d. 3 times the effective depth
15. Which of the following is fly ash based
blended cement?
a. Portland slag cement
b. Low-heat Portland cement
c. Portland pozzolana cement
d. Ordinary Portland cement
16. Which of the following test is performed on
hardened concrete to assess the hardness of its
surface?
a. Rebound hammer test
b. Rebound hammer test
c. Initial surface absorption test
d. Flexural test
17. In a PERT network, the optimistic time,
pessimistic time and most likely time of an
activity are 4 days, 16 days and 7 days
respectively. What is the value of the expected
duration of the activity?
a. 27 days
b. 8 days
c. 12 days
d. 19 days
18. (i) The addition of fly ash in concrete lowers
the heat of hydration in concrete.
(ii) The addition of fly ash in concrete reduces
its permeability. Which of the following
option is correct?
a. (i) is false and (ii) is true
b. (i) is true and (ii) is false
c. Both (i) and (ii) are false
d. Both (i) and (ii) are true
19. The crack resulting in lengthwise separation of
wood, occurring between and parallel to
annual rings is known as
a. check
b. knot
c. split
d. shake
20. Which of the following compound is mainly
responsible for the early strength development
of hydrated Portland cement?
a. C3S
b. C2S
c. C3A
d. C4AF
21. A cantilever beam of length l and flexural
rigidity EI is subjected to a clockwise couple
M0 at the free end. The downward deflection at
the free end will be
a.
2
0
2
M l
EI
b.
2
0
4
M l
EI
c.
2
0
6
M l
EI
d.
2
0
8
M l
EI
22. A simply supported beam of span L carries
two vertical point loads W at L/3 from both
QUESTION NUMBER 21-50
CARRY 2 MARKS EACH
ends. The equivalent uniformly distributed
load to produce same maximum bending
moment as that of the two concentrated loads
on the beam is
a. 4W/L
b. 3W/8
c. 8W/3L
d. 4W/3L
23. A beam simply supported at the ends carries
uniformly distributed load throughout the
span. The depth/breadth ratio is 2: 1. Now the
same beam is used without any modification
cross sectional area to carry the same
uniformly distributed load but with
depth/breadth ratio of 1:2. The ratio of
maximum deflection of the first case to the
second case is
a. 1:4
b. 1:2
c. 2:1
d. 4:1
24. A pin jointed truss as shown below is formed
by two members. The length of inclined
member is L and angle between the members
meeting at the joint is 30°. The modulus of
elasticity and cross sectional area of two
members are same and equal to E and A,
respectively. The vertical deflection of the
joint under load P is given by
a.   8 3 3
2
PL
AE

b.   8 3 3
4
PL
AE

c.   4 3 3
2
PL
AE

d.   2 3 3
4
PL
AE

25. A two span continuous beam ABC (AB = BC)
is fixed at A and freely supported at
BCheisIu1aded in the span BC. The flexural
rigidities of two spans are equal and supports
are at the same level. If MA and MB are the
moments at supports A and B respectively,
which of the following relationships is
correct?
a. A B M M 
b. 2 A B M M  
c. 0.5 A B M M 
d. 0.5 A B M M  
26. A concrete beam of rectangular section of 300
mm × 500 mm is prestressed with 750 kN
force, the centre of prestressing steel being
100 mm from the centroid of cross section.
The moment of inertia of the cross section
about horizontal axis passing through the
centroid and area of the cross section are 3.125
× 109 mm4 and 1.5 × 105 mm2 respectively.
Neglecting the effect of self weight, the
stresses at top and bottom fibres are
a. 5 MPa (compressive) and 12 MPa
(compressive) respectively
b. 3.4 MPa (tensile) and 12 MPa
(compressive) respectively
c. 1 MPa (tensile) and 11 MPa (compressive)
respectively
d. 2.5 MPa (tensile) and 14.5 MPa
(compressive) respectively
27. In a two dimensional state of stress, direct
stresses in x and y direction are +90 MPa and
+40 MPa, and shear stress of -30 MPa. If
Mohr’s circle is drawn with scale of 1 cm = 10
MPa, then centre of Mohr’s circle from the
origin is located at a distance of
a. 3.5 cm
b. 4.5cm
c. 7.5 cm
d. 6.5 cm
28. A propped cantilever is of length 6 m. The
flexural rigidity of the beam is 10000 kN.m2.
If the propped end undergoes a settlement of
12 mm, then magnitude of the moment
induced at the fixed end is
a. 20 kN.m
b. 16 kN.m
c. 10 kN.m
d. 0
29. Plastic moment carrying capacity of a
rectangular section of width b and depth d is
Mp. If fy, is the yield stress of the material,
then depth of the section will be given by
a.
3
2
p
y
M
bf
b.
6 p
y
M
bf
c.
4
3
p
y
M
f
d.
4 p
y
M
bf
30. A beam of total length L is fixed at both the
ends. There are two internal hinges; each is at
one third of the span from either end. The
beam carries uniformly distributed load w per
m run throughout the entire span. The bending
moment at the fixed support is
a.
2
7
wL
b.
2
9
wL
c.
2
10
wL
d.
2
12
wL
31. A built up section of a steel beam is shown
below. The centroid of the section is 117 mm
from the top fibre. If moment of inertia of the
section about centroidal horizontal axis is 6.48
× 106 mm4 and permissible stress in bending is
165 MPa, then safe load that beam can carry
over a simply supported pan of 4 m is
a. 21.4 kN
b. 14.3 kN
c. 16.4 kN
d. 18.3 kN
32. Deflection of a simply supported beam of span
L and flexural rigidity EI at a distance of x
from the left hand support is given by
  0 sin A x y x
EI L

 , where A0 is a constant. The
distributed loading on the beam will be
a.
2
0
2 sin A x
L L
 
b.
3
0
4 cos A x
L L
 
c.
3
0
3 cos A x
L L
 
d.
4
0
4 sin A x
L L
 
33. A sample of coarse aggregate has the
following information:
Weight of oven dry sample = 565 gin, weight
of wet (moist) sample = 600 gm, weight of
sample in saturated surface dry condition =
580 gm. What are the values of water
absorption (%) and free moisture content (%)?
a. 2.65% and 3.54% respectively
b. 3.54% and 2.65% respectively
c. 3.33% and 2.5% respectively
d. 2.5% and 3.33% respectively
34. For a concrete mix of 1 m3, the water, coarse
aggregate and fine aggregate contents are 200
kg, 1200 kg and 600 kg respectively. The
water to cement ratio (w/c ratio) by mass is
0.50. If the coarse aggregate to cement ratio by
mass is reduced by 0.5 and the coarse
aggregate content is reduced by 50 kg from
their respective original values, what is the
new w/c ratio keeping in view that the fine
aggregate content and the total quantity of all
ingredients remain same in both cases?
a. 0.61
b. 0.41
c. 0.31
d. 0.51
35. What is the ratio of target mean compressive
strength at 28 days of M 25 grade of concrete
to that of M 20 grade of concrete?
Given, s = standard deviation = 4 N/mm2, t = a
statistical value, corresponding to 5% of test
results below the characteristic compressive
strength = 1.65.
a. 1.25
b. 1.37
c. 1.18
d. 0.8
36. The split-tension test is conducted on a
concrete cylinder of length 0.3 m and diameter
0.15 m. The maximum load applied to the
specimen is 200 kN. What is the value of split
tensile strength?
a. 2.83 N/mm2
b. 1.41 N/mm2
c. 5.66 N/mm2
d. 4.24 N/mm2
37. A thin cylindrical shell of inside diameter D is
subjected to an internal fluid pressure q. If fy is
the yield stress of the material of the cylinder,
the minimum thickness of the shell according
to maximum shear stress criteria will be
a.
2 y
qD
f
b.
4 y
qD
f
c.
8 y
qD
f
d.
3 y
qD
f
38. A bronze sleeve 450 mm external diameter fits
accurately over a steel rod of solid circular
section 300 mm in diameter as shown in the
adjacent figure. If the ratio of modulus of
elasticity of steel to bronze is 1.75, then the
ratio of maximum flexural stress of steel bar to
that of bronze sleeve will be
(All dimension are in mm)
a. 7/6
b. 6/7
c. 21/8
d. 8/21
39. A two span continuous beam AB and BC was
subjected to concentrated load of 20 kN at
middle of span BC. The deflection under the
load was 0.02 m (downward) and that in the
middle of the span AB was 0.01 m (upward).
When 16 kN and 40 kN loads are applied
simultaneously at the middle of the span AB
and BC respectively, then downward
deflection at the middle of span BC will be
a. 0.016 m
b. 0.032 m
c. 0.064 m
d. 0.08 m
40. A solid circular shaft (length L) is fixed at one
end and free at the other is subjected to
uniform torque T and bending moment M
along its length. If Poisson’s ratio of the
material is 0.25, strain energy of the shaft can
be expressed as
a. 2 2 2.25
2
L M T
EI
    
b. 2 2 0.8
2
L M T
EI
    
c. 2 2 1.25
2
L M T
EI
    
d. 2 2 0.4
2
L M T
EI
    
41. A beam of rectangular cross section is to be
made from a cylindrical log of wood of
diameter D. The strongest cross section of the
rectangular beam that can be made should
have dimension
a. 2
2 3
D D 
b. 2
3 3
D D 
c. 2
3 2
D D 
d. 2
3 5
D D 
42. A plane rigid jointed steel frame with fixed
supports is acted upon by a couple M as shown
below. In order to find moment induced at the
fixed supports, moment distribution was
carried out. The ratio of moment at support A
to that at B is
a. 1:2
b. 2:1
c. 1:4
d. 4:1
43. A propped cantilever of span 3L is having
plastic moment carrying capacity Mp. It carries
a concentrated load at a distance of L from the
fixed end. Collapse load for the beam is
a.
2 p M
L
b. p M
L
c.
2.5 p M
L
d.
1.5 p M
L
44. In a RC beam of rectangular cross section
(breadth = 200 mm; effective depth = 350
mm), vertical stirrups 2-legged 8 mm diameter
are provided at a spacing of 200 mm c/c.
Given, cross sectional area of 8 mm bar (Fe
415) = 50.3 mm2, and design shear strength of
concrete is 0.5 MPa, total shear capacity of the
section will be
a. 64.68 kN
b. 72.45 kN
c. 115.38 kN
d. 98.56 kN
45. A beam of length L is fixed at both ends. The
beam carries uniformly distributed load of
intensity w per unit length covering the entire
span. The points of contra-flexure are at
a. 3
2 7
L L  from both ends
b. 3
2 6
L L  from both ends
c. 3
2 8
L L  from both ends
d. 3
2 9
L L  from both ends
46. A steel column of hollow circular cross section
(external diameter = D and internal diameter =
d) hinged at both ends is subjected to
compressive load. If the length of the column
is L and modulus of elasticity of steel is E, the
critical stress of column according to Euler’s
formula will be
a.   2
2 2
2 64
E D d
L


b.   2
2 2
2 32
E D d
L


c.   2
2 2
2 8
E D d
L


d.   2
2 2
2 16
E D d
L


47. A rivet of 20 mm diameter is used to connect
10 mm thick plate. The permissible stress for
rivet in shear and bearing are 80 MPa and 250
MPa, respectively. The difference of Rivet
value in double and single shear is
a. 29044 N
b. 26875 N
c. 24706 N
d. 23868 N
48. A semi circular arch of radius R hinged at two
ends and at the crown carries uniformly
distributed load q per unit length. The normal
thrust at the crown will be
a. q R/2
b. qR/4
c. qR/8
d. qR
49. The effective length of fillet welded joint is
210 mm. If the size of the weld is 6 mm and
permissible stress is 108 MPa, the safe load
that the joint can transmit is
a. 95256 N
b. 85256 N
c. 78206 N
d. 108000 N
50. The ratio of maximum shear stress to average
shear stress in a solid circular cross section is
a. 1.11
b. 1.22
c. 1.33
d. 1.44
1. As per USCS classification, the diameter of
silt size particle is less than
a. 0.075 mm
b. 0.002 mm
c. 0.02 mm
d. 0.75 mm
2. Specific volume of soil is 1.9. Its porosity is
a. 0.9
b. 0.47
c. 2.11
d. 1
3. In compaction test, MDD stands for maximum
dry density and OMC for optimum moisture
content. As compaction energy increases,
a. Both MDD and OMC increases
b. MDD decreases and OMC increases
c. MDD increases and OMC decreases
d. No change in MDD and OMC
4. Let ‘’ represent shear strength, c cohesion, ’
effective normal stress and  angle of internal
friction, then according to Coulomb’s shear
strength model
a.  =  + c tan 
b.  =  + c tan 
c.  = c +  tan 
d.  = c +  tan 
5. The bearing capacity of soil supporting a
footing of size 3 m x 3 rn will not be affected
by the presence of water table located at a
minimum depth below the base of footing by
a. 1.0 m
b. 1.5 m
c. 3.0 m
d. 6.0 m
6. Parallax error in leveling is due to a condition
where
a. image formed by objective is in the plane
of cross hair
b. image formed by objective is not in the
plane of cross hair
c. image formed by eye piece is in the plane
of cross hair
d. image formed by eye piece is not in the
plane of cross hair
7. Sag correction is applicable while using
a. dumpy level on a sloping ground
b. plane table by two point problem
c. tape for linear measurement
d. theodolite for measuring height
8. Which of the following tests is not conducted
on bituminous material?
a. Penetration test
b. Viscosity test
c. Vebe test
d. Softening point test
9. What is the value of radius of relative stiffness
for a 250 mm thick cement concrete slab
resting on a subgrade? Given, Poisson’s ratio
of concrete = 0.15, modulus of elasticity of
concrete = 26950 N/mm2 and modulus of
subgrade reaction equal to 0.064 N/mm2.
a. 2996 mm
b. 675 mm
c. 1309 mm
d. 865 mm
10. Fish plates are used
a. in rail joints for maintaining the continuity
of rails
b. for joining cast iron sleepers with rails
c. for joining prestressed concrete sleepers
with rails
d. to divert train from one track to another
11. To avoid tension on the bottom of a gravity
dam of bottom width b, the eccentricity must
be less than
a. b/2
b. b/3
c. 2b/3
d. b/6
12. A channel with a mild slope is followed by a
steep bottom slope. The profile of the
gradually varied flow will be
a. M1–S2
b. M2–S2
c. M1–S1
d. M2–S1
13. Identity the True statement from the
following:
a. A reciprocating pump will be called
double acting reciprocating pump if it has
two cylinders.
b. A reciprocating pump will be called
double acting reciprocating pump if it has
two pistons.
c. In case of double acting reciprocating
pump, the liquid is in contact with one
side of the piston.
d. In case of double acting reciprocating
pump, the liquid is in contact with both
sides of the piston.
14. Flood routing is a procedure to determine
a. Time and magnitude of flow at a point on
a water course from known upstream
hydrograph
b. The discharge over the spillway and
through sluice gate
c. Reservoir storage
d. The head available at the power plant
15. Ideal fluids are those fluids which
a. Have no viscosity
b. Have viscosity
c. Have surface tension
SECTION-II
QUESTION NUMBER 1-20
CARRY 1-MARK EACH
d. Are compressible
16. Hygroscopic water is a film water chemically
bound to soil particles by adhesive force and
a. Is available to plants
b. Is not available to plants
c. Can be drained out by plants
d. Is capable of movement by capillary force
17. Modern turbudimeters, working on the
principle of “scattering of light”, are known as
a. Optimeters
b. Tintometers
c. Nephelometers
d. pH meter
18. Pollution by depletion of ozone layer,
threatening the environment, is caused due to
the reaction of ozone with
a. Carbon Monoxide
b. Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
c. Sulfur dioxide
d. Oxygen
19. The water to be used for boilers should
preferably be
a. Hard
b. Potable
c. Corrosive
d. Soft
20. If Q is the flow rate of water into a rectangular
sedimentation tank of length L, width B and
height H, then the surface loading rate is given
by
a.
.
Q
B L
b.
.
Q
B H
c.
. . B L H
Q
d.
. .
Q
B LH
21. A soil sample of specific gravity 2.7 has void
ratio of 0.9. The gravimetric water content of
the sample is 25%. Its bulk unit weight is
a. 13.9 kN/m3
b. 17.4 kN/m3
c. 18.6 kN/m3
d. 8.8 kN/m3
22. A bulk weight of 200 g of silty soil of specific
gravity 2.64 is packed in a volume of 115 cc.
Oven dried weight of soil is 170g. The
saturation of the sample is
a. 25%
b. 30%
c. 75%
d. 60%
23. For a falling head permeability test, there is a
drop in head from 64 cm to 54 cm in 8
minutes. The area of stand pipe is 1 cm2 and
area of soil sample is 20 cm2. Length of soil
sample is 10 cm. The permeability of the soil
sample is
a. 1.8  10–4 cm/s
b. 1.4  10–1 cm/s
c. 4.1  10–1 cm/s
d. 1.8  10–3 cm/s
24. A 30 cm diameter concrete pile is driven into a
homogenous clay deposit with cohesion equal
to 40 kN/m2 and adhesion factor equal to 0.7.
Embedded length of the pie is 10 m and safe
load on the pile is 115 kN. Assume Nc equal to
9 and there is both end resistance and shaft
resistance. The factor of safety is
a. 2.3
b. 0.4
c. 1.2
d. 2.5
25. Sea bed is 200 m deep, which consist of sand
with saturated unit weight of 19.81 kN/m3.
Unit weight is 9.81 kN/m3. Effective stress at
5m below sea bed is
a. 2061 kN/m2
b. 50 kN/m2
c. 99 kN/m2
d. 2012 kN/m2
26. Coefficient of consolidation for a clay layer is
given as 6  10–7 m2/minute. The time factor
for 90% degree of consolidation is 0.848.
Liquid limit of clay is 50%. The saturated clay
layer is 3m thick with double drainage
condition. The time required for 90%
consolidation is
a. 5.3  104 hours
b. 2.12  105 hours
c. 2.65  104 hours
d. 1.06  105 hours
27. For an unconsolidated undrained (UU) test,
major and minor principal stress for silty clay
is 200 kN/m2 and 100 kN/m2, respectively.
Shear strength parameters for this soil sample
is
a. 2 200 / ; 20 c kNm    
b. 2 100 / ; 0 c kNm    
c. 2 50 / ; 0 c kN m    
d. 2 200 / ; 10 c kNm    
28. A vertical cut is made in a soil with shear
strength parameters of ' 0 c  and ' 12    .
Coefficient of active earth pressure is
0.656. Unit weight of soil is 18 kN/m3.
The active earth pressure at 4m depth is
a. 47 kN/m2
QUESTION NUMBER 21-50
CARRY 2 MARKS EACH
b. 3 kN/m2
c. 72 kN/m2
d. 110 kN/m2
29. A 10m thick clay layer with unit weight of 20
kN/m3 overlies sandy deposit of 4m thick. The
piezometric head at the bottom of the clay
layer is 18m. The safe depth of excavation
possible in clay layer without causing
instability is
a. 8.8 m
b. 6.1 m
c. 4.9 m
d. 1.2 m
30. The following bearings were observed in
running a closed traverse by compass survey.
Line Fore bearing Back bearing
ab 75°5’ 254°20’
bc 115°20’ 296°35’
cd 165°35’ 345°35’
Local attraction problem exists at stations:
a. c
b. d
c. a, b
d. All stations
31. A theodolite was set up at station P and angle
of elevation measured to a vane 4 m above the
foot of leveling staff held at Q is 9°.
Horizontal distance between P and Q is 2000
m. Reduced level of instrument axis is 2650
m. Assuming negligible correction, the level
of staff station Q is
a. 2654 m
b. 2967 m
c. 2963 m
d. 2650 m
32. Reduced level of bottom of sunshade, ‘ a ’ is
63.120 m. The following readings were
obtained using a level:
Readings on inverted staff at ‘ a ’ is 2.235m
Readings on the top of peg ‘p’ on the ground
is 1.035 m
The height difference between a and p is
a. 2.235 m
b. 1.195 m
c. 3.270 m
d. 1.035 m
33. The distance between two posts measured with
a 20 m chain was found to be 250 m. If the
chain 10 cm too long, then the true distance
between the posts is
a. 251.25 m
b. 250.10 m
c. 248.75 m
d. 249.90 m
34. The correct sequence of the anaerobic sludge
digestion steps is
a. Acid formation, hydrolysis, methane
formation
b. Methane formation, acid formation,
hydrolysis
c. Hydrolysis, methane formation, acid
formation
d. Hydrolysis, acid formation, methane
formation
35. If a sample of air is analyzed at standard
temperature and pressure, and is found to
contain 0.3 ppm of sulfur dioxide, the
equivalent SO2 concentration in 3 / g m  will
be (Given atomic weight of S = 32g and O
= 16g)
a. 8570
b. 857
c. 85.7
d. 0.857
36. Match the List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:
List I (Treatment Units)
a. Grit Chamber
b. Primary sedimentation
c. Sludge digestion
d. Activated sludge
List II (Detention Time)
(i) Six hours
(ii) Two minutes
(iii) Two hours
(iv) Twenty days
Codes
a b c d
a. i ii iii iv
b. ii iii iv i
c. i iv iii ii
d. ii i iii iv
37. A 10 min. triangular unit hydrograph has peak
discharge of 100 m3/sec and time to peak is 30
min. the peak discharge and time to peak of
the direct runoff hydrograph resulting from a
20 min. storm having 0.2 cm rainfall in the
first 10 min. and 0.4 cm rainfall in the second
10 min. is (consider phi-index of 1.2 cm/hr)
a. 80 m3/sec and 40 min.
b. 20 m3/sec and 40 min.
c. 20 m3/sec and 30 min.
d. 100 m3/sec and 30 min.
38. The velocity field can be represented by
      3 2 4 6 V x py qzi rx y z j sx y tzk         
where p, q, r, s, t are constants. If the fluid
is incompressible and conserve mass, then
the value of t is
a. 5
b. –5
c. 3
d. 1
39. A channel is carrying a discharge of 20 m3/sec.
The average velocity of flow in the channel for
1 f  as per Lacey’s regime theory is
a. 0.723 m/sec
b. 7.23 m/sec
c. 72.3 m/sec
d. 0.0723 m/sec
40. An irrigation canal has culturable command
area of 28, 000 hectares. The intensity of
irrigation for Kharif season is 25% and for
Rabi season is 60%. If the duty at its head is
700 hectares/cumec for Kharif season and
1680 hectares/ cumec for Rabi season, then the
design discharge at the head of the canal is
a. 2 cumec
b. 20 cumec
c. 10 cumec
d. 200 cumec
41. A volume of 2.0  106 m3 of groundwater was
pumped out uniformly from an unconfined
aquifer of 200 km2 area. If the specific yield of
the aquifer is 0.005, the water table of the
aquifer was lowered down by
a. 2m
b. 10m
c. 8m
d. 5m
42. A u-tube manometer is arranged as shown in
figure below to measure the pressure
difference between point A and point B in a
pipeline conveying water of density 1000
kg/m3. The density of the manometer fluid is
10  103 kg/m3. The pressure difference
between A and B when h = 1.0 m is (take g =
10 m/sec2)
a. 90 kN/m2
b. 100 kN/m2
c. 9 kN/m2
d. 900 kN/m2
43. A rectangular channel has a width of 2m. the
channel carries a discharge of 4m3/sec with
depth of water of 1m. At certain section in the
channel, it is proposed to construct a smooth
hump. The maximum height of the hump that
can be constructed without any change in the
upstream depth of the channel is
a. 0.9 m
b. 1.20 m
c. 0.09 m
d. 1.11 m
44. Head loss between section A and B of a
circular pipe of a diameter 100 mm is 0.40 m.
The average velocity of flow is 1.26 m/sec and
Darcy’s frictional coefficient is 0.008. The
length of the pipe between section A and B is
a. 154.48 m
b. 1.54 m
c. 18.50 m
d. 15.45 m
45. What is the population equivalent of a city if
the average sewage from the city is 95  106
1/day, and the average 5 day BOD is 300
mg/l? Assume that per capita BOD5 of sewage
per day = 0.08 kg.
a. 2,280
b. 28,500
c. 71,250
d. 3,56,250
46. The mixed liquor suspended solids (MLSS)
concentration in the aeration tank of activated
sludge process is 4000 mg/l. If one litre of
sample settled in 30 minutes and the
measuring cylinder showed a sludge volume
of 200 ml, then the sludge volume index
would be nearly
a. 200
b. 150
c. 100
d. 50
47. If the population of a city is 2 lakhs, and
average water consumption is 200 lpcd, then
the capacity of the pipe mains should be
a. 108 Mld
b. 72 Mld
c. 60 Mld
d. 40 Mld
48. For a water sample having a total hardness of
200 mg/l as CaCO3, and alkalinity of 250 mg/l
as CaCO3, the carbonate hardness and noncarbonate
hardness are respectively
a. 50 mg/l and 200 mg/l of CaCO3
b. 200 mg/l and 50 mg/l of CaCO3
c. 0 mg/l and 200 mg/l of CaCO3
d. 200 mg/l and 0 mg/l of CaCO3
49. A water having pH = 9 will have OH–
concentration equal to
a. 109 mol/l
b. 10–9 mol/l
c. 10–5 mol/l
d. 105 mol/l
50. The chlorine demand of a water sample was
found to be 0.2 mg/l. The amount of bleaching
powder containing 30% available chlorine to
be added to treat one litre of such a water
sample is
a. 0.67 mg
b. 0.06 mg
c. 1.33 mg
d. 0.14 mg
1. Who was the first woman to be elected as the
President of the Indian National Congress?
a. Sarojini Naidu
b. Sonia Gandhi
c. Indira Gandhi
d. Annie Besant
2. Which political leader delivered the famous ‘I
have a dream’ speech?
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Winston Churchill
c. Martin Luther King
d. Rabindranath Tagore
3. Who established the organization ‘Khudai
Khidmatgar’?
a. Hyder Ali
b. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
c. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
d. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
4. Analgesics are drugs used to prevent or relieve
a. aches and pain
b. fever and high body temperature
c. hormone deficiency
d. stress and anxiety
5. The abbreviation CD stands for
a. Circular Disc
b. Computer Device
c. Compact Disc
d. Code-Demodulator
6. Chandrayaan-I, India’s first mission to the
moon, has 11 scientific instruments that are
being released on the surface of the moon.
These instruments are together known as
a. Moon Impact Probes
b. Terrain Mapping Cameras
c. Scientific Payloads
d. Spectrometers
7. The World Wide Web was invented by
a. Tim Berners-Lee
b. Narayanmurthy
c. Sabeer Bhatia
d. Charles Babbage
8. How many diagonals does a quadrilateral
have?
a. one
b. two
c. four
d. four
9. ISO 14000 standards deal with
a. quality management
b. production management
c. human resource management
d. environmental management
10. Which Indian politician’s autobiography is
titled The Story of My Life?
a. Morarji Desai
b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. Lal Krishna Advani
d. Atal Behari Vajpayee
11. The phrase ‘through thick and thin’ means
a. big and small
b. thin and fat
c. large object
d. under all conditions
12. Picturesque means
a. Photogenic
b. Simple
c. Stimulating
d. Ugly
13. Diligent means
a. intelligent
b. energetic
c. modest
d. industrious
14. The opposite of miserly is
a. spendthrift
b. generous
c. liberal
d. charitable
15. The opposite of ingratitude is
a. sympathy
b. reward
c. thankfulness
d. stimulation
SECTION - III
ALL QUESTIONS CARRY
1MARK EACH
16. The appropriate missing word in the blank
space in the sentence “I prefer coffee
___________________ tea.” is
a. than
b. over
c. for
d. to
17. The appropriate missing word in the blank
space in the sentence “Many relatives attended
him during his illness.”
a. of
b. on
c. for
d. with
18. The article required before the word “oneeyed”
in the sentence “There was
_____________ one-eyed beggar by the
multiplex.” Is
a. the
b. a
c. an
d. nil
19. The article required before the word
University in the sentence “She met Professor
Shah at __________ University” is
a. a
b. an
c. the
d. nil
20. ‘Which one is the correct sentence amongst
the following sentences?
a. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends,
were assembled on the lawns.
b. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends,
are assembled on the lawns.
c. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends,
assembled on the lawns.
d. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends,
have assembled on the lawns.