Bank PO Exam Model Paper

Can you please provide here State bank of India (SBI) Probationary officers exam model question paper???

[Arun Vats]

State bank of India (SBI) Probationary officers exam pattern is as given below:

1. There are four sections in SBI PO Exam. Each section has 50 marks.

Total Marks: 200

a) English Language (Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension etc)

b) General Awareness, Marketing & Computers

c) Data Analysis & Interpretation

d) Reasoning (High Level)

SBI PO Exam paper

GENERAL AWARENESS,
MARKETING & COMPUTER
1. What is the full form of the term
'NPA' as used in banking environment
?
(1) Not Profitable Assets
(2) New Potential Accounts
(3) Non Performing Assets
(4) Net Performing Assets
(5) None of these
2. As per recent reports many countries
are planning to introduce
Tobin Tax", the idea of which
was given by a Nobel Prize winner
economist James Tobin in
1978. Tobin Tax, if implemented
will be levied on which of the following
?
(l)On the interest income of
corporates earned through
major investments
(2) All cash transactions
(3) Services availed specifically by
an elite group of people
(4) Foreign Exchange Transactions
(5) None of these » >
3. As per news reports the Indian
Economy is poised to hit high
growth once again. It is estimated
that the Gross Domestic Product
(GDP) may be somewhere in the
range of 6.25% - 7.75% in the
current fiscal. But at the same
time the economy has to face certain
challenges also. What could
these challenges be ?
(A) Maintaining balance between
price stability and exchange
rate
(B)Capital flow may not be adequate
as many FIIs are still
not comfortable with Indian
markets.
(C) Industrial sector is still under
pressure and not showing
much improvement.
(1) Only (A) •
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All (A), (B)and(C)
(5) None of these
4. Which of the following countries
has decided that from October
2018 no cheques should be issued
or honoured there, and all
the payments should be made
and accepted in electronic form
only.
(l)USA (2) Russia
(3) United Kingdom
(4) Australia'
(5) None of these
5. In commodity exchanges in India,
Index Futures are not permitted,
as some of the provisions
of the FCRA do not allow the
same. What is the full form of
FCRA?
(1) Foreign Commodities Regulation
Act
(2) Forward Commodities Repurchasing
Act
(3) Forward Contracts Regulation
Act
(4) Financial Contracts Reformation
Act
(5) None of these
6. As per the findings of the expert
group headed by Dr. Suresh
Tendulkar a substantial number
of people in India still live Below
Poverty Line. What is that number
in terms of percentage ?
(1)25% (2)37%
(3)41% (4)47%
(5) None of these
7. As per the findings of the World
Bank, which of the following recent
development in rural areas,
has doubled the income of rural
households, raised literacy rate
by 10% and appreciated land
prices by upto 80% ?
(1) Relief packages to the farmers
(2) Construction of all weather
roads
(3) Recharging of water bodies
(4) Rainwater harvesting
(5) None of these
8. As decided by the Reserve Bank
of India, all the villages with a
population of 2000 will have access
to financial services by the
end of
(1)2009-10 (2)2010-11
(3)2011-12 (4)2012-13
(5) None of these
9. As reported in various newspapers
the Reserve Bank of India
is planning to allow more and
more banks to function as "Local
Area Banks": This will help RBI
in the implementation of which
of the following of its plans/
drives?
(A) Financial Inclusion
(B) Rural Banking
(C) Mobile and e-Banking
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) None of these
10. During his visit to Trinidad in
November 2009, the Indian Prime
Minister signed a Nuclear deal
between India and .
(1) Canada (2) Brazil
(3) Saudi Arabia (4) Tanzania
(5) None of these
11. Which of the following is/are the
objective (s) of the new industrial
policy of the Government of India?
(A) To transform India into a major
partner and player in the
global trade
(B)To maintain a sustained growth
in productivity
(C)To become the biggest exporter
of horticultural products <
in South East Asia
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) Only (B) and (C) •
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
12. The Chief Executive Officers
(CEOs) of the APEC held an important
summit in Singapore in
November 2009. What is the full
form of APEC?

(1) Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation
(2) Afro-Pacific Economic Council
(3) Asia Pacific Economic Council
14) Alliance for Promotion of Economic
Cooperation
(5) None of these
13. Which of the following Gulf countries
has decided recently that
despite the objections raised by
certain countries, it will construct
10 more Uranium enrichment
plants to strengthen its position
in the world ?
(l)Iraq (2) Iran
(3) UAE (4) Kuwait
(5) None of these
14. Which of the following countries
was the winner of Asia Cup
Hockey Tournament for women
held in November 2009 ?
(1) India (2) Japan
(3) China (4) South Korea
(5) None of these
15. The leaders of the European
Union (EU) named Mr. Herman
Van Rompuy as the first President
of the E.U. Mr. Rompuy is
the present^. .
(1) Prime Minister of Britain
(2) President of Ukraine
(3) Prime Minister of Russia
(4) President of Italy
(5) Prime Minister of Belgium
16. Which of the following is not one
of the Monitorable Targets of the
11th Five Year Plan (2007-12) ?
(l)To increase the average GDP
growth rate
(2) To increasing the literacy rate
(3) To increase energy efficiency
(4) To improve sex ratio
(5) To minimize the effect of global
warming .
Cryogenic Engines are used in
which of the following areas of
technology ?
(1) Atomic Energy
(2) Food Technology
(3) Oceanography
(4) Space Research
(5) None of these
J. The National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act is now known by
which of the following names ?
(1) Indira Gandhi Rural Employment
Guarantee Act
(2) Rajiv Gandhi Rural Employment
Guarantee Act
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru Rural Em-
. ployment Guarantee Act
(4) Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment
Guarantee Act
(5)All(A),(B)and(C)
19. Which of the following initiative
is/are taken by the Government
of India to boost the development
of agriculture ?
(A) Accelerated Irrigation Benefit
Programme
(B) Fertiliser Subsidy Scheme
(C) Public Distribution System
(PDS)
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) All (A), (B)and (C).
20. Which of the following is/are true
about the Indo-US Economic and
Financial partnership deal made
in November 2009 ?
(A) The objective of the deal is to
strengthen bilateral engagements
and understanding.
(B) Work jointly on some financial
and infrastructure related
projects.
(C)The deal was signed during the
" visit of the Foreign Minister of
both the countries to South
Africa for Global Economic
Summit 2009.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3)OnlytA)and(B)
(4) Only (A) and (C)
(5) None of these
21. Which of the following countries
has signed a deal to supply a fleet
of 150 J -10 Fighter Jets to Pakistan?
(1) France (2)Canada
(3) Russia (4) USA
(5) China
22. Which of the following terms/
names is not associated with
banking/ financial trade in India ?
(1) Automated Clearing House
(2) Provision Coverage Ratio
(3) Market Stabilisation Scheme
(4) Credit Default Swaps
(5) Double Fault
23. The standard protocol of the
Internet is .
(1) TCP/IP (2) Java
(3) HTML (4) Flash
(5) None of these
24. Digital photos and scanned images
are typically stored as_
graphics with extension such as
.bmp, .png. .jpg, .tif or .gif.
(1) vector (2) bitmap
(3) either vector or bitmap
(4) neither vector nor bitmap
(5) None of these
25. A Is a computer attached
to the Internet that runs
a special Web server software and
can send Web pages out to other
computers over the Internet
(1) web client (2) web system
(3) web page (4) web server
(5) None of these
26. After a user has saved and deleted
many files, many scattered
areas of stored data remain that
are too small to be used efficiency,
causing
(1) disorder (2) turmoil
(3) disarray (4) fragmentation
(5) None of these
27. Which of the following books is
written by V.S. Naipaul ?
(l)The Last Hero
(2) Bliss was in that Dawn
(3) Train to Pakistan
(4) A Tale of Two Cities
(5) A House for Mr. Biswas
28. Which of the following is the communication
protocol that sets the
standard used by every computer
that accesses Web-based information?
(l)XML (2) DML
(3) HTTP (4) HTML
(5) None of these
29. Which of the following converts
all the statements in a program
in a single batch and the resulting
collection of instructions is
placed In a new file ?
(1) compiler (2) interpreter
(3) converter (4) instruction
(5) None of these
30. A program that generally has more
user-friendly interface than a
DBMS is called a .
(1) front end (2) repository
(3) back end (4) form
(5) None of these
31. When you install a new program
on your computer, it is typically
added to the menu.

(1) all Programs
(2) select Programs
(3) start Programs
(4) desktop Programs
(5) None of these
32. Which of the following contains
information about a single "entity"
in the database - like a person,
place, event, or thing ?
(1) query (2) form
(3) record (4) table
(5) None of these
33. Which one of the following is a
key function of a firewall ?
(1) Monitoring (2) Deleting
(3) Copying (4) Moving
(5) None of these
34. are a type of inexpensive
digital camera that remains tethered
to a computer and used for
videoconferencing, video chatting
and live Web broadcast.
(l)Webcams (2)Webpics
(3) Browsercams
(4) Browserpics
(5) None of these
35. Who amongst the following is the
author of the book "The Rediscovery
of India" ?
(l)MeghnadDesai '
(2)RomilaThapar
(3) Mulkraj Anand
(4) Amlt Chaudhary
(5) None of these
36. Some banks which were not able
to meet their priority sector lending
targets are now allowed to do
so by purchasing Priority Sector
Lending Certificates (PSLC).
Which of the following agencies/
organisations is/ are authorized
to issue these certificates ?
(A) Micro Finance Institutions
(B) Non Banking Finafice Companies
(C) NABARD
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(B) None of these
37. Market Research is useful for
(1) deciding proper marketing
strategies
(2) deciding the selling price
(3) choosing the right products
(4) choosing the sales persons
(5) All of these
38. A 'call' means
(1) shout out to somebody
(2) a profession or business
(3) visit friends
(4) visiting prospective customers
, (5) After-sales services
39. Conversion means
(1) meeting a prospective client
(2) interacting with a prospective
client
(3) converting an employer into an
employee
(4) converting a seller to a buyer
(5) converting a prospective client
into a buyer
40. Customisation means
(1) acquiring more customers
(2) regulating customers
(3) special products to suit each
customer
(4) more products per customer
(5) All of these
41. Modern styles of marketing include
(1) digital marketing
(2) tele-marketing
(3) e-commerce
(4) e-mails solicitation
(5) All of these
42. The acronym HTML stands for
(1) High Transfer Machine Language
(2) High Transmission Markup
Language
(3) Hypertext Markup Language
(4) Hypermedia Markup Language
(5) None of these
43. e-Marketing is same as
(1) virtual marketing
(2) digital marketing
(3) real time marketing
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
44. Value added services means
(1) costlier products
(2) larger number of products
(3) additional services
(4) at par services
(5) None of these
45. Aggressive Marketing is necessitated
due to
(1) globalisation
(2) increased competition
(3) increased production
(4) increased job opportunities
(5) All of these
46. Computers connected to a LAN
can
(1) run faster
(2) share information and/or
share peripheral equipment
(3) e-mail
(4) go online
(5) None of these
47. Efficient marketing style requires
(1) proper planning
(2) good communication skills
(3) team work
(4) knowledge of products
(5) All of these
48. The performance of a sales person
depends on
(1) salary paid
(2) sales incentives paid
(3) size of the sales team
(4) ability and willingness of the
sales person
(5) team leader's aggressiveness
49. The sole aim of marketing is to
(1) Increase sales
(2) Increase the number of employees
(31 Increase profits
(4) Increase production
(5) All of these
50. Lead generation means
(l)Tips for selling tactics
(2) Tips for better production
(3) Generate leaders
(4) Likely sources for prospective
clients
(5) All of these

ANSWERS
1. (3) 2. (4) 3.(4) 4. (3)
5. (3) 6.(2) 7. (1) 8.(3)
9.(2) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12.(1)
13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (5) 16. (5)
17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (3)
21. (5) 22. (5) 23. (1) 24. (2)
23. (4) 26. (4) 27. (5) 28. (3)
29.(1) 30. (4) 31.(1) 32. (3)
33.(1) 34.(1) 35.(1) 36. (2)
37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (5) 40.(3)
41. (5) 42.(3) 43. (2) 44. (3)
45.(2) 46.(2) 47. (5) 48. (4)
49. (1) 50.(4)

Tell me from where I can get Bank PO exam Model question paper???

[Quick Sam]

Here I am providing Bank PO exam Model question paper:

1. Which country will introduce entrepreneur visa to encourage foreign nationals from India and elsewhere to catalyze the country’s economic recovery?
(a) US (b) Britain
(c) France (d) Denmark
(e) None of these
2. Name the state whose chief minister has said that the Armed Forces Special Powers Act can be withdrawn from some areas with a rider that the Army can step in again if the situation so warrants.
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Manipur
(c) Assam (d) Mizoram
(e) None of these
3. Who among the following has won the Durand Cup held in New Delhi recently?
(a) JCT (b) Chirag United
(c) East Bengal (d) Mohun Bagan
(e) None of these
4. Name the Spanish world champion who won the Valencia Grand Prix in the final round of the world championship.
(a) Jorge Lorenzo (b) Malcolm Campbell
(c) Enzo Ferrari (d) Louis Chiron
(e) None of these
5. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Swiss Indoors – Roger Federer
(b) ATP Valencia Open – David Ferrer
(c) WTA tournament of Champion – Ana Ivanovic
(d) Questnet Open ITF Women’s – Nicha Lertpitak
(e) US Open 2010 – Roger Federer
6. Who is the author of the book World of All Human Rights?
(a) Harish Salve (b) Santosh Hegde
(c) Arundhati Roy (d) Soli J Sorabjee
(e) None of these
7. Name the Ethiopian legend who announced his retirement after dropping out of the New york City Marathon with a knee injury.
(a) Haile Gebreslassie (b) Duncan Kibet
(c) James Kwambai (d) Patrick Makau
(e) None of these
8. Name the deputy governor of RBI who retired recently after spending nearly 38 years there in various capacities during which she has had a stint in virtually every area of central banking.
(a) Mohan Rakesh (b) Subir Gokarn
(c) Usha Thorat (d) Shyamala Gopinath
(e) None of these
9. Name the person who has been honoured with the prestigious 2010 Intel Environment Award for his efforts to solve global safe drinking water and sanitation crises.
(a) Subir Bhomick (b) Rajesh Shah
(c) Sundarlal Bahuguna (d) Chandi Prasad
(e) None of these
10. The three-day India Economic Summit, organized by the Geneva-based World Economic Forum (WEF), November 14-17 was held in
(a) New Delhi (b) Geneva
(c) Washington (d) Brussels
(e) None of these
11. Name Myanmar’s celebrated pro-democracy leader and a political prisoner of global stature who was set free from house arrest in Yangon.
(a) Ne Win (b) San Yu
(c) Maung Maung (d) Than Shwe
(e) None of these
12. The 10th Russia-India-China (RIC) meeting was held in
(a) Guilin (China) (b) Beijing (China)
(c) Bangalore (India) (d) Wuhan (China)
(e) None of these
13. Which of the following has been removed from the United Nations list of unresolved disputes, in a setback to Pakistan which has been asking the world body to intervene on the issue?
(a) Siachin (b) Sir Creek
(c) Baglihar dam (d) Jammu and Kashmir
(e) None of these
14. Which of the following has not been conferred Maharatna status by the Central government?
(a) ONGC (b) IOC
(c) NTPC (d) SAIL
(e) Railways
15. Who has been re-appointed as the prime minister of France?
(a) Dominique de Villepin (b) Jean-Perre Raffarin
(c) Francois Fillon (d) Lionel Jospin
(e) None of these
16. Who among the following became the first enlisted Sikh soldier in the US Army in more than two decades to complete basis training after getting a rare religious exemption for his turban and beard because the military requires his language skills?
(a) Kamaljeet Singh Kalsi (b) Tejdeep Singh Rattan
(c) Bob Singh Dhillon (d) Simran Preet Singh Lamba
(e) None of these
17. Ending weeks of opposition to a European Union bailout, heavily-indebted –has agreed finally with the EU and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on a multi-billion euro rescue package to avert bankruptcy. It will be the first country to receive financial support from the euro 750-billion (nearly trillion dollars) financial safety net, spread by the EU and the IMF six months ago, to help euro zone nations facing liquidity crisis.
(a) Ireland (b) Spain
(c) Argentina (d) Denmark
(e) None of these
18. Sonal Mansingh is associated with
(a) Painting (b) Theatre
(c) Dance (d) Sports
(e) None of these
19. Who has won the Indian Open golf title recently?
(a) Baek Seuk-Hyun (b) Rikard Karlberg
(c) Manar Jaini (d) Shiv Kapur
(e) None of these
20. Serbia has won the Davis Cup title by defeating
(a) France (b) US
(c) Switzerland (d) Sweden
(e) None of these
21. Who has been crewned Miss Earth Talent 2010 after beating 17 other contestants at a talent competition in Ho Chi Minh City in Vietnam?
(a) Jennifer Pazmino (b) Watsaporn Wattanakoon
(c) Yeidy Bosquez (d) Nicole Faria
(e) None of these
22. Who won the 21st Lal Bahadur Shastri hockey tournament?
(a) ONGC (b) Indian Oil
(c) Air India (d) Indian Railways
(e) None of these
23. Which country has recently won the ICC Inter Continental Cup in Dubai?
(a) Kenya (b) Scotland
(c) Afghanistan (d) China
(e) None of these
24. World leaders from 193 countries signed a new global climate regime on Dec 11 called
(a) Cancun Agreement (b) Kyoto Agreement
(c) Copenhagen Agreement (d) London Agreement
(e) None of these
25. Mobile banking is set to get a boost form IMPS, which stands for
(a) Inter-Bank Mobile Payment Service
(b) Inter-Bank Money Payment Service
(c) Inter-Bank Money Payment System
(d) Inter-Bank Money Payment System
(e) None of these
26. With the aim of giving a fillip to development schemes in tribal and backward regions, mostly affected by Naxal violence, the Cabinet Committee on Economic affairs (CCEA) has approved the commencement of an Integrated Action Plan (IAP) in
(a) 20 districts (b) 40 districts
(c) 60 districts (d) 100 districts
(e) None of these
27. Name of the animal rights crusader who was presented the shining World Compassion Award along with a cheque for 20,000 dollars from Supreme Master Ching Hai International Association.
(a) Vandana Shiva (b) Sunita Narain
(c) Maneka Gandhi (d) Sunder Lal Bahuguna
(e) None of these
28. Name the founder of the whistleblower website Wikileaks.
(a) Julin Assange (b) Navi Pillay
(c) Phillip Adams (d) BenLaurie
(e) None of these
29. Name the country’s only government award for an environmental film.
(a) Vasudha Award (b) Vasundhara Award
(c) Vaishali Award (d) Vriksha Mistra Award
(e) None of these
30. The controversial UDRS system used in cricket is
(a) Universal Decision Review System
(b) Unified Decision Review System
(c) Umpire Decision Review System
(d) Unmanned Decision Review System
(e) None of these
31. Which of the following is anti-corruption watchdog?
(a) WTO (b) Transparency International
(c) UN Security Council (d) Wikileaks
(e) None of these
32. Who among the following has been appointed as the new director of the Central Bureau of investigation watchdog?
(a) Ashwani Kumar (b) Amar Pratap Singh
(c) DP Kohli (d) VS Tiwari
(e) None of these
33. Who is the author of the book Yes, We Can!?
(a) M Karunanidhi (b) Dr Ramadoss
(c) Vaiko (d) MK Azhagiri
(e) None of these
34. Who is the author of the book A Rainbow in the Night?
(a) Jim Corbett (b) George Orwell
(c) Riduard Lo[;omg (d) Dominique Lapierre
(e) None of these
35. Which country will host the FIFA World Cup in 2018?
(a) England (b) Spain
(c) Portugal (d) Belgium
(e) None of these
36. Name the film which is an Indo-Bangladesh joint production and has bagged the coveted Golden Peacock Award for the Best Film at the 41st International Film Festival of India (IFFI) 2010.
(a) Moner Manush (b) Bilet Pherat
(c) Andhare Lao (d) Neel Akasher Neechey
(e) None of these
37. Beighton Cup is associated with
(a) Football (b) Cricket
(c) Badminton (d) Hockey
(e) None of these
38. Name the tiny the energy-rich gulf Arab country that has been picked to host the FIFA 2022 World Cup.
(a) UAE (b) Oman
(c) Saudi Arabia (d) Qatar
(e) None of these
39. World Disabled Day is observed on
(a) 1 December (b) 2 December
(c) 3 December (d) 4 December
(e) None of these
40. Name the concept introduced by the UPA govt through an Act in 2008 for imparting speedy justice to rural population.
(a) Gram Nyayalayas (b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Gram Nyaya Sabha (d) Gram Sabha
(e) None of these
41. Name the son of the late Andhra chief minister YS Rajasekhara Reddy who resigned form the Kadapa Lok Sabha constituency and Congress recently.
(a) K Rossiah (b) YS Jaganmohan
(c) Kiran Reddy (d) Gopal Rao
(e) None of these
42. What is Wikileaks?
(a) A spy agency (b) A terrorist organization
(c) A whistle-blowing website (d) A hackers, group
(e) None of these
43. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) IDBI Bank – RBI (b) ULIP—SEBI
(c) Pension – PFRDA (d) Insurance—IRDA
(e) Mutual Fund – PFRDA
44. Which of the following is not an instrument of capital market?
(a) Share (b) Bond
(c) Debenture (d) Repo
(e) All the above
45. Lemuam rimmer David R udisha and Croatian high jump star Blanka Vlasic were named male and female athletes of the year respectively by the
(a) IAAF (b) World Athletic Organisation
(c) European Athletic Organisation (d) World Athletic Federation
(e) None of these
46. Which of the following is the last book of VS Naipaul?
(a) A House for Mr Biswas (b) The Masque of Africa
(c) India: A Wounded Civilization (d) India: A Million Mutinies Now
(e) None of these
47. Who among the following is not an economist?
(a) Bhagwati Prasad (b) Suresh Tendulkar
(c) Kaushik Basu (d) Vandana Shiva
(e) All the above
48. Name the chief minister of Andhra Pradesh who resigned recently.
(a) YS Jaganmohan (b) YV Reddy
(c) Janardhan Reddy (d) K Rosaiah
(e) None of these
49. Nallari Kiran Kumar Reddy has been appointed as the Chief Minister of
(a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
(e) None of these
50. Who has been conferred Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2010?
(a) Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva (b) Aung San Suu Kyi
(c) Nelson Mandela (d) Bingu Wa Mutharika
(e) None of these

ENGLISH

Directions (Q. 51-64): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
July 15, 2010 turned out to be a historic day, as the Indian Rupee got the much-awaited symbol, just like other leading currencies of the world, viz Dollar, Euro, Pound Sterling and the Yen. The new symbol Rs. is an amalgamation of Devanagari “Ra” and the Roman “R” without the stem. Till now, the Rupee was written in various abbreviated forms in different languages.
The new symbol designed by IIT Bombay postgraduate Shri D Udaya Kumar was approved by the Union Cabinet on July 15. “It’s a big statement on the Indian currency… The symbol would lend a distinctive character and identity to the currency and further highlight the strength and global face of the Indian economy,” said Information and Broadcasting Minister Smt Ambika Soni, while briefing the media on the Cabinet decision.
The new symbol will not be printed or embossed on currency notes or coins, but it would be included in the “Unicode Standard” to ensure that it is easily displayed and printed in the electronic and print media. The encoding of the rupee symbol in the Indian Standards is estimated to take about six months while encoding in the Unicode and ISO/IEC 10646 will take about 18 months to two years. It will also be incorporated in software packages and keyboards for use in India.
On March 5, 2009 the Government announced a contest to create a symbol for the Rupee, inviting entries for the symbol, which would reflect and capture the Indian ethos and culture. Over 3000 entries were received, which were evaluated by a jury headed by the Deputy Governor, RBI, which also included experts from three reputed art and design institutes. The Jury selected five entries and also gave its evaluation of these five entries to the Government to take a final decision.
Shri Udaya Kumar’s entry was the ‘Best of Five”. He will get an award of Rs. 2.5 lakh and more than that an incredible fame, as the designer of the Rupee symbol. “My design is a perfect blend of Indian and Roman letters – capital ‘R’ and Devanagri ‘Ra’ which represents rupaiah, to appeal to international and Indian audiences… It is based on the tricolour, with two lines at the top and white space in between,” a visibly-happy Kumar said.
The genesis of the word ‘rupee’ is in the Sanskrit word ‘raupya’ which means silver. Indian Rupee is variously called ‘rupaya’ in Hindi, ‘rupiya’ in Gujarati, ‘roopayi’ in Telugu and Kannada, ‘rubai’ in Tamil and ‘rupyakam’ in Sanskrit. However in Eastern India it is called ‘Taka/Toka’ in Bengali and Assamese and ‘Tanka’ in Oriya.
India stands among the earliest to issue coin, and as a result it has seen a wide range of monetary units throughout its history. There is some historical evidence to show that coins may have been introduced the first time some time between 2500 and 1750 BC.
51. Who is the Union Information and Broadcasting Minister?
(a) Smt Sushma Swaraj (b) Smt Meera Kumar
(c) Smt Pratibha Devisingh Patil (d) Smt Ambika Soni
(e) None of these
52. What is the importance of 15 July in the history of Indian rupee?
(a) The new Rupee symbol replaced the old.
(b) The international community approved the Rupee symbol.
(c) The Cabinet approved the much-awaited Rupee symbol.
(d) Both (1) and (3).
(e) None of these
53. Which of the following countries has a currency symbol?
(a) China (b) France
(c) Singapore (d) Germany
(e) Not mentioned in the passage
54. Who has designed the newly approved Rupee symbol?
(a) A teacher posted at IIT Bombay (b) Mr Uday Kumar of Maharashtra
(c) Mr D Uday Kumar, a postgraduate
(d) Information and Broadcasting Minister
(e) None of these
55. The new design ‘Rs.’ finds its origin in
(a) Devanagari (b) Roman
(c) Devanagari and Sanskrit (d) Devanagari and Roman
(e) None of these
56. What is the importance of the new Rupee symbol?
(a) It highlights the strength of the Indian economy.
(b) Now Indian rupee gets value like Dollar, Pound, Euro Yen.
(c) Now most of the foreign countries will maintain their foreign exchange reserves in Rupee.
(d) Now it will be a fully convertible currency.
(e) None of these
57. Where is the genesis of the term ‘rupee’?
(a) It has been derived from Sanskrit word ‘Raupya’.
(b) It finds its origin in the term ‘Rupaya’ of Hindi.
(c) ‘Rupiyo’ in Gujarati
(d) ‘Roopayi’ in Tamil and Kannada
(e) None of these
58. What does ‘Raupya’ mean in Sanskrit?
(a) Gold (b) Diamond
(c) Silver (d) Bronze
(e) None of these
59. What is Rupee called in Oriya?
(a) Taka (b) Toka
(c) Rupyakam (d) Tanka
(e) None of these
60. When was the first coin introduced?
(a) Between 250 and 750 BC (b) Between 2500 and 1750 AD
(c) Between 250 and 759 AD (d) Between 2500 and 1750 BC
(e) None of these
61. When was the process to develop a new rupee symbol initiated?
(a) 15 July 2010 (b) 5 June 2009
(c) 5 March 2009 (d) 31 January 2010
(e) None of these
62. Which among the following methods did the Government adopt to get the new symbol?
(a) All the leading artists were asked to design.
(b) A contest was announced for the purpose.
(c) The contestants were interviewed.
(d) The governor of RBI was asked to decide the process.
(e) None of these
63. What do the two lines of the design mean?
(a) They reflect the federal structure of the govt.
(b) They reflect the mixed structure of Indian economy.
(c) They reflect the new liberalized Indian economy.
(d) They reflect the tri-colour India flag.
(e) None of these
64. How many designs were sent to the Government for approval?
(a) 3000 (b) 2000
(c) 10 out of 3000 (d) 5 out of more than 3000
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. 65-74): Read each sentence carefully and detect the error which may be in any one of the parts 1, 2, 3 or 4. In case of ‘No error’, 5 will be the answer.
65. (1) To hit a man/(2) when he is down/(3) is a contemptuous/(4) thing to do./(5) No error
66. (1) The climate on this/(2) altitude is cool and dry/(3) but down in the valley/(4) it is very sultry./(5) No error
67. (1) Since her mother/(2) died when she/(3) was young/(4) she did lack maternal care./(5) No error
68. (1) In 1665 a/(2) great pestilence caused/(3) the death of 63000 persons/(4) in the city of London./(5) No error
69. (1) Because of his/(2) lack of interest in the/(3) affairs of the society, the members/(4) decided to depose the president./(5) No error.
70. (1) In the last three/(2) years Rohan has managed/(3) to obtain for him thousands/(4) of foreign stamps./(5) No error.
71. (1) We watched the/(2) aeroplane until it/(3) disappeared, surrounded/(4) complete by clouds./(5) No error
72. (1) Before the police could/(2) seize on the way the thief/(3) escaped across the/(4) river into the forest./(5) No error
73. (1) If you leave/(2) now, you will have/(3) plenty time to reach/(4) the city by noon./(5) No error
74. (1) According to/(2) present-day opinion, action/(3) must be taken long/(4) ago to preserve forests./(5) No error
Directions (Q. 75-79): Rearrange the sentences given below in a way which would make an appropriate and meaningful paragraph. Mark the correct order of sentences and answer the questions given below.
i. In most of the tourist destinations of the valley, the somber environs greet the visitor.
ii. But the turmoil has restricted most of the pilgrims only to visit the Amarnath Shrine.
iii. Besides, most of the Amarnath Yatris too used to visit the valley’s tourist spots after their pilgrimage to the holy Amarnath cave shrine.
iv. The tourism industry was expecting a booming business this summer.
v. But the unrest has dashed the hopes of those associated with this industry, the mainstay of Kashmir’s economy.
vi. The industry was expecting at least ten lakh visitors this season.
75. After rearrangement which of the following sentences will come ‘FIRST’?
(a) I (b) ii (c) iii (d) iv (e) v
76. After rearrangement which will be the ‘SECOND’ one?
(a) I (b) ii (c) iii (d) iv (e) v
77. After rearrangement which will be the ‘FOURTH’ one?
(a) v (b) vi (c) iv (d) iii (e) i
78. After rearrangement which will be the ‘FIFTH’ one?
(a) ii (b) iii (c) iv (d) v (e) vi
79. After rearrangement which will be the ‘LAST’ one?
(a) vi (b) v (c) iv (d) ii (e) i
Directions (80-89): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
An increase in repo and reverse repo 80 borrowing and lending cost 81 banks will 82. This 83 ideally lead to overall increase in interest rates like credit, deposit etc. The higher interest will in turn 84 to lower demand and thereby lower 85. This is 86 monetary transmission process. However, this 87 may not work 88 and pose 89 problems for a central bank.
80. (a) says (b) reflects
(c) relates (d) implies
(e) None of these
81. (a) of (b) for
(c) to (d) by
(e) None of these
82. (a) diminish (b) decrease
(c) increase (d) stable
(e) None of these
83. (a) do (b) could
(c) should (d) can
(e) None of these
84. (a) lead (b) come
(c) result (d) go
(e) None of these
85. (a) recession (b) deflation
(c) inflation (d) stagflation
(e) None of these
86. (a) known (b) called
(c) told (d) said
(e) None of these
87. (a) route (b) step
(c) application (d) process
(e) None of these
88. (a) suitable (b) appropriate
(c) perfectly (d) systematic
(e) None of these
89. (a) further (b) many
(c) several (d) different
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. 90-94): Fill up the blanks with the most suitable pair of words from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.
90. We’re late. The film ——— have already started by the time we ——– the cinema hall.
(a) shall, arrive (b) would, reach
(c) will, get to (d) should, approach
(e) may, go
91. The fire spread through the building ——– but everybody was ——– escape.
(a) fast, enable to (b) instant, managed to
(c) quick, able (d) immediately, safe
(e) quickly, able to
92. I am thinking ——– a house; ——– you think that’s a good idea?
(a) buying, what (b) of buying, do
(c) taking, what (d) for, will
(e) of, do
93. I am tired. I’d rather ——– out this evening, if you don’t ——– .
(a) go, feel (b) not, accompany
(c) not be, worry (d) never go, annoy
(e) not go, mind
94. I must ——– now. I promised not ——– late.
(a) leave, being (b) reach, of being
(c) go, to be (d) do it, for being
(e) get in, of been
Directions (Q. 95-100): Replace the word/words given in bold by one of the given options to make the sentence correct and meaningful. In case of ‘no correction Required’ (NCR), 5 will be the answer.
95. It was not long for I discovered that he could neither read nor write.
(a) long before (b) long since
(c) longer than (d) long then
(e) No correction required
96. The death toll in the train accident went to six hundred.
(a) increased to (b) rose to
(c) spread to (d) counted to
(e) No correction required
97. While walking on the road, a dog bit one man.
(a) a dog had bitted a man (b) the man was dogged
(c) a dog did bit a man (d) the man was bitten by a dog
(e) No correction required
98. He promised that he will deliver the letter within two days.
(a) will must deliver (b) would deliver
(c) will be delivering (d) will have delivered
(e) No correction required
99. The negotiations faced a doldrums with neither side ready to move even an inch.
(a) a hanger (b) a crisis
(c) a hold (d) an abortion
(e) No correction required
100. I started early so that I may cover the maximum of distance before even mid-day.
(a) I would (b) I shall
(c) I did (d) I could
(e) No correction required

ANSWER THESE QUESTION
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A B A E D A C B A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
E D D E C D A C B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D C C A A C C A A C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B B C D E A D D C A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B C B D A B D D B A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D C E C D A A C D D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C B D D E A D E E C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D C E C D E B B D D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B C C A C B D C A C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
E B E C A A D B B D

Please provide me Model Paper for IBPS Bank PO exam as I am looking for the same ?

[Kiran Chandar]

As you want I am here providing you Model Paper for IBPS Bank Clerical exam.

Sample questions :
Q.1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one which does not
belong to that group ?
(1) Red (2) Black (3) Green (4) Colour (5) Yellow
Q.2. ‘Table’ is related to ‘Wood’ in the same way as ‘Shoe’ is related to _____
(1) Cobbler (2) Chappal (3) Hide (4) Leather (5) Shop

Q.3. In a row of boys Amar is tenth from one end. There are 20 boys in the row. What is his position from the
other end ?
(1) 11th (2) 10th (3) 9th (4) 20th (5) None of these

Q.4. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, write the
last letter of that word, if more than one such word can be formed write M and if no such word can be
formed write X.
(1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X

Q.5. In a certain code SENT is written ‘ + ÷ × –’ and ANT is written ‘* × –’. How is TEN wiritten in that code ?
(1) × ÷ × (2) * – * (3) ÷ × – (4) – ÷ × (5) × ÷ –

English Language
Q.6 - 8 Directions : Pick up the most appropriate word from amongst the words given under each sentence to
complete it meaningfully.


Q.6. He quickly glanced the book to find what it said about the Indian economy.
(1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to (5) over

The correct answer is “through” which is answer No. 2.
Now attempt the following questions.
Q.7. The counsel urged the court to down the obnoxious law.
(1) enact (2) enforce (3) cancel (4) strike (5) declare


Q.8. The local official the Minister of the situation.
(1) explained (2) warned (3) apprised (4) told (5) intimated

Q.9 - 11 Directions : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any,
will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your answer. If there is no
error, the answer is ‘5’.

Q.9. I am twenty / two years old / when I first / joined the bank. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

The error is in (1). Therefore the answer is ‘1’.
Q.10. To the Hindus / the Ganga is / holier than / any other river. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

In Q. 10, there is no error; therefore the right answer to this question is ‘5’.
Now attempt the following question.
Q.11. Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Q.11. Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q.12-13 Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word nearest
in meaning to the word given in capitals.
Q.12. CENTENARY
(1) a guard (2) a hundred years (3) a very old man
(4) a hundred runs (5) the hundredth anniversary
Q.13. TRIUMPH
(1) conquer (2) smash (3) earn (4) brave (5) capture
Q.14-15 Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five numbered words, the word
most opposite in meaning of the word given in capitals.
Q.14. LIVELY
(1) simple (2) weak (3) dull (4) angry (5) morose
Q.15. INEPT
(1) accurate (2) skillful (3) sensible (4) artistic (5) apt
In addition to the above questions, there will be a passage in English for comprehension. You will be asked
questions based on the passage.
Numerical Ability
Q.16-19 In each question one number is missing. The place where the number is missing is shown by a question
mark (?). Four answers are provided against each question. They are shown by numbers (1), (2), (3) and
(4). You have to find out which one of the answers can replace the question mark. If none of these four can
replace the question mark, the answer is (5).
Q.16. 42 + 73 + 137 = ?
(1) 352 (2) 252 (3) 242 (4) 142 (5) None of these
In Q. No. 16, 252 is the correct answer. So your answer would be (2).
Q.17. 20 
1
2
= ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 12 (4) 20 (5) None of these
Q.18. 0.7 × 0.5 = ?
(1) 35 (2) 0.35 (3) 0.0035 (4) 0.035 (5) None of these
Q.19. 85% of ? = 34
(1) 40 (2) 289 (3) 29 (4) 42 (5) None of these
Q.20. At 25 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 75 (2) 100 (3) 150 (4) 200 (5) None of these
the answer, of course, is 150, which is answer No.3.
Q.21. Which of the following can be an exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) None of these
Q.22. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ?
(1) Nil (2) Rs.5 (3) Rs.10 (4) Rs.20 (5) None of these


Here is the attachment.

[Kiran Chandar]

As you want I am here providing you Model Paper for IBPS Bank PO exam.

IBPS Bank PO CWE Coding and decoding, blood relation, datasufficiency questions.

1. BE' is related to 'GJ' in the same way as 'PS' is related to
1) UY
2) UX
3) UZ
4) VY
5) None of these Ans. 1 (2)


2. Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored the highest?
1) P
2) T
3) R
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans. 2 (3)

3. Pointing to a girl, Nidhi said, 'She is the daughter of my grandmother's only child.' How is the girl related to Nidhi?
1) Sister
2) Self
3) Cousin sister
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans.3 (4)

4. In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME written in that code?
1) 8%o51
2) 85%8
3) 8@51
4) 8%31
5) None of these Ans.4 (1)


5. In a certain code language 'how many books' is written as 'sa da na' and 'many more days' is written as 'ka pa da'. How is 'books' written in that code language?
1) sa
2) na
3) sa or na
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans 5)(3)

6. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as 'PKBNXSHQ'. How is SANCTION written in that code?
1) TBODMNHS
2) DOBTMNHS
3) TBODSHNM
4) DOBTOPJU
5) None of these Ans.6 (2)


7. The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
1) 1
2) 5
3) 7
4) 9
5) None of these Ans.7 (1)

8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OROANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three Ans. 8 (3)



9. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three Ans. 9 (2)

10. The position of how many digits in the number 8247531 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three Ans.10 (3)


11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R, who is sixteenth from the right end of the row. What is W's position from the right end of the row?
1) Eleventh
2) Tenth
3) Twelfth
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans 1)

Directions (Q. 12-14): Study the following, information carefully and answer the questions, which follow:
Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organized in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play each day and no play was organised on one of these days. Play D was organised before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organised on Saturday. Play C was not organised on the first day. Play B was organized on the next day on which play C was organised. Play A was organised on Tuesday.
12. On which day was play B organised?
1) Thursday
2) Friday
3) Wednesday
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans.12 (2)


13. On which day was no play organised?

1) Monday

2) Wednesday

3) Thursday

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.13 (1)


14. Which play was organised on Wednesday?

1) A

2) C

3) D

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.14 (3)


15. If e.f means '+'; 'x' means '-',; '+' means 'xf and '-' means '€', then 24 -4€6 x3+4 =?

1) 36

2) 24

3) 8

4) 4

5) None of these

Ans.15 (5)


16. What should come next in the following number series? 98761234598712345987123498

1) 7

2) 1

3) 2

4) 5

5) None of these

Ans.16 (2)


17. Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English

alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so

obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the

right end after the rearrangement?

1) Q

2) K

3) P

4) B

5) None of these

Ans.17 (3)


18. Meena correctly remembers that her father's birthday is after eighteenth May but before

twentysecond May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father's

Birthday is before twenty-fourth May but after Twentieth May. On which date in May was



definitely their father's birthday?

1) Twentieth

2) Nineteenth

3) Eighteenth

4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Ans.18 (5)


Directions (Q. 19-20): Study the following

information and answer the questions given below:

(i) 'P€ Q' means 'P is sister of Q'.

(ii) 'P x Q' means 'P is brother of Q'.

(iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is mother of Q'.

(iv) 'P + Q' means 'P is father of Q'.


19. Which of the following means 'M is maternal uncle of T?

1) M€K+T

2) M x K+T

3) M x K-T

4) M € K - T

5) None of these

Ans.19 (4)


20. Which of the following means 'H is paternal grandfather of T?

1) H +J+T

2) T x K + H

3) H +J x T

4) H - J + T

5) None of these

Ans.20 (1)

Directions (Q. 21-25): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given

below:

832 965 748 259 614


21. Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number?

1) 2

2) 5

3) 8

4) 9

5) 4

Ans. 21 (5)



22. Which .of the following is the sum of the first' and the second digits of the highest number?

1) 11

2) 15

3) 10

4) 7

5) None of these

Ans.22 (2)


23. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged,

which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number?

1) 5

2) 1

3) 6

4) 4

5) 3

Ans.23 (1)


24. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged,

which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number?

1) 8

2) 6

3) 7

4) 5

5) None of these

Ans.24 (5)


25. Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third

highest number?

1) 6

2) 4

3) 1

4) 7

5) None of these

Ans.25 (3)


Directions (Q. 26-31): In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three

conclusions numbered I, II and m. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they

seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide

which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding

commonly known facts.



26. Statements:All stones are poles.

All poles are desks.

Some desks are nets.

All nets are days.

Conclusions: I. Some nets are stones.

II.Some desks are stones.

III.Some days are desks.

1) Only I and II follow

2) Only I and III follow

3) Only II and III follow

4) All I, II and III follow

5) None of these

Ans.26 (3)


27. Statements: Some months are weeks.

Some weeks are years.

All years are buses.

All buses are trains.

Conclusions: I. Some trains are weeks.

II. Some buses are weeks.

III.Some trains are months.

1) Only I and II follow

2) Only II and III follow

3) Only I and III follow

4) All, I, II and III follow

5) None of these

Ans.27 (1)


28. Statements: Some stations are rails.

All rails are rivers.

All rivers are papers.

Some papers are cards.

Conclusions: I. Some cards are stations.

II.Some rivers are stations.

III. Some cards are rivers.

1) Norte follows

2) Only I follows

3) Only II follows

4) Only III follows

5) Only II and III follow

Ans.28 (3)



29. Statements: All windows are roofs.

All roofs are glasses.

Some glasses are plates.

Some plates are carpets.

Conclusions: I. Some plates are windows.

II. Some glasses are windows.

III. Some carpets are roofs.

1) None follows

2) Only I follows

3) Only II follows

4) Only III follows

5) Only I and II follow

Ans.29 (3)


30. Statements: All trees are jungles.

All jungles are houses.

All houses are buildings.

All buildings are villages.

Conclusions: I. Some villages are houses.

II. Some buildings are jungles.

III. Some houses are trees.

1) Only I and II follow

2) Only II and III follow

3) Only I and III follow

4) All I, II and III follow

5) None of these

Ans.30 (4)


31. Statements: Some books are calendars.

No calendar is a paper.

All papers are pencils.

Some pencils are chairs.

Conclusions: I. Some chairs are books.

II. No chair is a book.

III. Some pencils are calendars.

1) None follows

2) Only either I or II follows

3) Only either I or II and III follow

4) Only III follows

5) Only n follows

Ans.31 (2)

Directions (Q. 32-37): Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below:



M5%PU2A$43ZEK 19QRI@D7F88WN6#VcJ*Y


32. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth from the right end of the

above arrangement?

1) N

2) $

3)4

4) W

5) None of these

Ans.32 (1)


33. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above

arrangement?

1) U

2) D

3) E

4) c

5) None of these

Ans.33 (5)


34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately

preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Ans.34 (3)


35. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately

followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by a number?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Ans.35 (3)


36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above

arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1) P5A

2) 4AE



3) QIK

4) F8@

5) VN*

Ans.36 (5)


37. If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the

following will be the twelfth from the left end?

1) E

2) K

3) Z

4) D

5) None of these

Ans.37 (5)


Directions (Q. 38-43): In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by

four combinations of letters numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the

combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding

system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer.

If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (5), ie 'None

of these' , as your answer. Digit/Symbol : 5 @ 3 c 9 8 % 8 1 4 2 $ # 7 6 * Letter Code : P I MAE

G F J H B D. N R Q T U .

Conditions: (i) If the first unit is a symbol and the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded

as the code for the even digit.

(ii) If the first unit is all even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be

interchanged.

(iii) If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both at e 1:0 be coded as the code

for the symbol.

(iv) If both the first and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.


38. 9@374%

1) EIMQBF

2) FBQMIE

3) ZIMQBZ

4) FIMQBF

5) None of these

Ans.38 (4)


39. 29c$#1

1) HEANRD

2) DEANRH

3) DEANRD

4) HEANRH

5) None of these



Ans.39 (1)


40. *479@c

1) UBQEIA

2) ZBQEIA

3) ZBQEIZ

4) ABQEIU

5) None of these

Ans.40 (3)


41. % 286$3

1) FDGTNF

2) FDGTNM

3) FGDTNM

4) WGTNZ

5) None of these

Ans.41 (2)


42. 54#*@6

1) PBURIT

2) PBRUIP

3) TBRUIP

4) TBRUIT

5) None of these

Ans.42 (5)


43. $63c94

1) NTMAEN

2) BTMAEB

3) ZTMAEB

4) NTMAEB

5) None of these

Ans.43 (2)


Directions (Q. 44-48): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is second to the right of

A and third to the left of C. B is second to the left of C and fourth to the right of H. D is second

to the right of G


44. Who is to the immediate left of D?

1) H

2) C

3) G

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.44 (2)


45. Who is second to the right of E?

1) B

2) G

3) H

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.45 (1)


46. Who is third to the left of B?

1) E

2) H

3) F

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.46 (5)


47. What is the position of G with respect to A?

1) Third to the left

2) Third to the right

3) Fifth to the left

4) Fourth to the right

5) Fifth to the right

Ans.47 (4)


48. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the

second persons?

1) BGC

2) EFB

3) DAH

4) AEF

5) GCD

Ans.48 (3)

Directions (Q. 49-54): In the following questions, the symbols @, c, $, % and # are used with

the following meaning as illustrated below:

'P $ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.

'P@Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.

'P # Q' means' P is not smaller than Q'.

'P c Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.

'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greeter than Q'.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of

the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer

accordingly.


49. Statements: D # K K @ T, T $ M,. M '% .T

Conclusions: I. J @ T

II. J%T

III. D@T

1) Only I is true

2) Only II is true

3) Only either I or II is true

4) Only IV is true

5) Only either I or II and III are true

Ans.49 (5)


50. Statements: R@N,NcD, O$J, J#B

Conclusions: I. R @ J

II. J@N

III. B@D

1) None is true

2) Only I is true

3) Only II is true

4) Only III is true

5) Only I and III are true

Ans.50 (3)


51. Statements: W c B, B % V, V $ R, R@K

Conclusions: I. K c B

II. R#B

III.V@W

1) Only I and II are true

2) Only I and III are true

3) Only II and III are true

4) AII I, II and III are true

5) None of these

Ans.51 (3)


52. Statements: H $ M, M # T, T @ D, D c R

Conclusions: I. D c M

II. R@M

III. H$T

1) None is true

2) Only I is true

3) Only II is true

4) Only III is true

5) Only I and II are true

Ans.52 (2)


53. Statements: B % J, J @ K, K c T, T $ F

Conclusions: I. F @ K

II. B@K

III.B@F

1) Only I and II are true

2) Only I and III are true

3) Only II and III are true

4) All I, II and III are true

5) None of these

Ans.53 (1)


54. Statements: F # B, B $ M, M @ K, J< e N

Conclusions: I. N @ M

II. F$M

III. KcB

1) Only I is true

2) Only II is true

3) Only III is true

4) Only II and III are true

5) None is true

Ans.54 (5)


Directions (55-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an. input line of words and numbers

rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of

input and rearrangement.

Input : sale data 1823 for 95 then 38

Step I : data sale 1823 for 95 then 38

Step II : data 95 sale 18 23 for then 38

Step III : data 95 for sale 18 23 then 38

Step IV : data 95 for 38 sale 18 23 then

Step V : data 95 for 38 sale 23 18 then

Step VI : data 95 for 38 sale 23 then 18

and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the

appropriate step for the given input.


55. Input: year 39 stake47 house full 94 55 How many steps will be required to complete the

rearrangement?

1) Five

2) Six

3) Four

4) Seven

5) None of these

Ans.55 (2)


56. Step II of an input is: car 83 lost ever 324674 now How many more steps will be required to

complete the rearrangement?

1) Three

2) Four

3) Five

4) Six

5) None of these

Ans.56 (2)


57. Step III of an input is : and 79 code 27 18 new goal 34 Which of the following will definitely

be the input?

1) code and 79 27 18 new goal 34

2) code 27 18 new goal 34 and 79

3) code 27 and 1879 new goal 34

4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Ans.57 (4)


58. Input: water full never 35 78 16 height 28 Which of the following steps will be the last?

1) VI

2) VII

3) VIII

4) IX

5) None of these

Ans.58 (1)


59. Step II of an input is: high 69 store pay 36 43 15 there Which of the following will be step

VI?

1) high 69 pay 43 store 36 there 15

2) high 69 pay 43 store 36 15 there

3) high 69 pay 36 43 store 15 there

4) There will be no such step

5) None of these

Ans.59 (4)

60. Input: train more 2953 fast gear 3784 Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

1) IX

2) VIII

3) VII

4) VI

5) None of these


Ans.60 (5)

Directions (Q. 61-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below:

Following are the conditions for selecting Assistant General Manager-HR in an organisation.

The candidate must

(i) be at least 40 years and not more than 50 years old as on 01-05-2010.

(ii) be postgraduate in Personnel

Management /HR with at least 60 per cent marks.

(iii) have post-qualification work experience of at least fifteen years out of which at least five

years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation.

(iv) have successfully implemented HR-System in his/ her organisation sometime during the past

three years.

(v) have secured at least 45 per cent marks in the selection process.

In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT at

(A) (ii) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in postgraduation and at least 65 per

cent marks in the selection process, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

(B) (iii) above but has at least twelve years' post qualification work experience out of which at

least eight years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation, the case is to be referred to

Chairman.

In each question below details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the courses of

action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and

mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other

than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01-

0572010.

Mark answer 1) if the candidate is to be selected.

Mark answer 2) if the candidate is not to be selected.

Mark answer 3) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.

Mark answer 4) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

Mark answer 5) if the case is to be referred to Chairman.



61. Pranab Ghosh was born on 8th March 1968. He has been working for the past eighteen years

in an organisation out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his

postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He had successfully implemented HR-System last

year in his organisation. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the selection process.

62. Sheetal Jha has been working in an organisation for the past twenty years out of which ten

years as Senior Manager-HR after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with

70 per cent marks. She was born on 2nd December 1965. She has secured 45 percent marks in

the selection process.

63. Prabir Sengupta was born on 8th May 1963. He has secured 65 percent marks in the selection

process. He has been working for the past fifteen years in an organisation, out of which twelve

years as Senior Manager HR, after completing his post graduation in HR with 55 per cent marks.

He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the last two years.

64. Shailesh Kumar has been working in an organisation for the past thirteen years, out of which

nine years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent

marks. He was born on 15th September 1968. He has secured 48 per cent marks in the selection

process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization two years back.

65. Navin Chopra was born on 12th June 1967. He has been working for the past sixteen years,

out of which seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his post-graduation in

Personnel Management with 75 per cent marks. He has secured 44 per cent marks in the

selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation last year.

66. Meera Kulkarni has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which eight years as

Senior Manager-HR, after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with 66 per

cent marks. She has successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation during the last two

years. She has secured 49 per cent marks in the selection process. She was born on 14th

December 1971.

67. Akash Shastri was born on 12th April 1967. He has been. working for the past sixteen years,

out of which six years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his

postgraduation in HR with 58 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in

his organization last year. He has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process.

68. Shekhar Jena has been working for the past fifteen years, out of which last seven years as

Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per

cent marks. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 16th.

69. Sunetra Govil was born on 5th April 1964. She has been working for the past seventeen

years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation. She has secured 48 per

cent marks in the selection process. She has also secured 69 per cent marks in her postgraduation

in Personnel Management. She successfully implemented HR-System in her

organisation last year.



70. Mohit Saxena was born on 27th July 1963. He has been working for the past thirteen years,

out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, after completing his post- graduation in HR with

67 per cent marks. He has secured 49 per cent marks in the Selection process. He has

successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the past three years.