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16th July 2014, 12:45 PM
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Bank of Baroda clerk exam previous year question papers in PDF format

Will you please share with me the Bank of Baroda clerk exam previous year question papers in PDF format?
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  #2  
16th July 2014, 01:47 PM
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Re: Bank of Baroda clerk exam previous year question papers in PDF format

As you want to get the Bank of Baroda clerk exam previous year question papers in PDF format so here it is for you:

Reasoning
1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
Ans. (A)
2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
Ans. (B)
3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
Ans. (D)
4. acme : mace :: alga: ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
Ans. (D)
5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
Ans. (D)
6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is
related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
Ans. (C)
7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D)G
Ans. (C)


8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following
series?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans. (D)
9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
Ans. (C)
10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following
series?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(C) 52
(B) 49
(D) 56
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the
other three.
11. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)
12. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
Ans. (B)
13. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
Ans. (B)
14. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.


15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following
would be the 14th letter from your left?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is
12th from the left?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
Ans. (B)
17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is
10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a
certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
that group?
18. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
Ans. (C)
19. (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
Ans. (A)
20. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
Ans. (A)
21. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
Ans. (B)
22. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee


Ans. (B)
23. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (D)
24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is
‘prohibition’ written in that code?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
Ans. (D)
25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a
code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
Ans. (C)
26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be
written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
Ans. (B)
27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801,
then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
Ans. (A)
28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue,
blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a
certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
Ans. (C)
29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He
again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In
which direction he is walking now?
(A) East
(B) West


(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (B)
30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn
with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards
left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (D)
31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is
taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the
tallest?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
Ans. (A)
32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as
Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks
than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in
the descending order of marks?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or
daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the
girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has
neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit
and Billoo?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
Ans. (C)
35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a
weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who
was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the
application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and


disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the
application was received by the inward clerk?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
Ans. (C)
36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I
learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10
: 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
Ans. (D)
37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those
who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition
and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
Ans. (D)
38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they
interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is
Indra’s position from the left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
Ans. (D)
39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are
immediately preceded by 7?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (A)
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are
immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (C)
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—


(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
Ans. (D)
42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be
coded
in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
Ans. (D)
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
Ans. (B)
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Ans. (B)
45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are
there in that row?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
Ans. (D)
46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked
17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are
after her in the rank?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
Ans. (B)
47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related
to …….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)


48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is
related to………
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
Ans. (D)
49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
Ans. (B)
50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Ans. (B)

1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in
ten’s place and hundred’s place and then arranging them in the descending
order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number
from your right ?
479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : (C)
2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in
which direction of P ?
(A) North
(B) North-East
(C) South
(D) South-East
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering the
questions that follow—
On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below
facing the North.
(i) B is 50 metres to the right of D.
(ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B
(iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D.
(iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A.
3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many
metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all
through ?
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 170
(D) 230
Ans : (D)
4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E
?
(A) 53
(B) 78
(C) 92
(D) 120
Ans : (C)
5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
Ans : (A)


6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife
said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the
opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ?
(A) North
(B) West
(C) South
(D) East
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of
numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set.
7. Given set : (4, 9, 18)
(A) (8, 14, 22)
(B) (10, 15, 25)
(C) (6, 12, 23)
(D) (12, 17, 26)
Ans : (D)
8. Given set : (10, 14, 17)
(A) (4, 11, 14)
(B) (9, 12, 15)
(C) (8, 13, 18)
(D) (6, 9, 12)
Ans : (A)
9. Given set : (7, 27, 55)
(A) (21, 35, 52)
(B) (18, 42, 65)
(C) (16, 40, 72)
(D) (13, 30, 58)
Ans : (C)
10. Given set : (39, 28, 19)
(A) (84, 67, 52)
(B) (52, 25, 17)
(C) (70, 49, 36)
(D) (65, 45, 21)
Ans : (A)
11. Given set : (246, 257, 358)
(A) (233, 343, 345)
(B) (273, 365, 367)
(C) (143, 226, 237)
(D) (145, 235, 325)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 12–16) Each question contains six or seven statements
followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which
the statements are logically related.
12. (1) All books are having pages.
(2) All kings are having pages.
(3) All kings are books.


(4) Some heavy things are having pages.
(5) Some heavy things are books.
(6) Some books are heavy.
(7) Some heavy things are having pages.
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 6, 1, 4
(C) 4, 6, 1
(D) 1, 5, 7
Ans : (D)
13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians.
(2) All cricket players are athletes.
(3) Some athletes play cricket.
(4) Some cricket players are vegetarians.
(5) No cricket player is a vegetarian.
(6) All athletes are vegetarians.
(A) 1, 2, 5
(B) 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 5, 2
(D) 2, 5, 6
Ans : (A)
14. (1) All grandmothers cook well.
(2) No man is a grandmother.
(3) Some men do not cook well.
(4) All those who cook well are men.
(5) No one who cooks well is a man.
(6) All those who cook well are grandmothers.
(7) Some men are not grandmothers.
(A) 2, 6, 5
(B) 2, 5, 6
(C) 1, 4, 2
(D) 6, 4, 7
Ans : (B)
15. (1) Looting is a crime.
(2) Some crooked people are criminals.
(3) All those involved in looting are criminals.
(4) Some crooked people are involved in looting.
(5) All criminals are looked down in society.
(6) Some crooked people are not criminals.
(A) 1, 4, 6
(B) 3, 6, 2
(C) 1, 2, 6
(D) 3, 4, 2
Ans : (D)
16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life.
(2) Some men are those who have patience.
(3) No man is a woman.
(4) All those who have patience are successful in life.
(5) Some who are successful in life are men.
(6) Some men are not those are successful in life.
(A) 1, 3, 6


(B) 4, 2, 6
(C) 1, 5, 3
(D) 2, 4, 5
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 17–21) Each of the questions below consists of a question
and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answers—
(A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to
answer the question;
(B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to
answer the questions;
(C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not
sufficient to answer the question;
(D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to
answer the question.
17. In which direction is Mahatmaji’s statue facing ?
I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city.
II. The statue’s shadow falls towards East at 5 O’clock in the evening.
Ans : (C)
18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ?
I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the
number of girls in that class.
II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and
their average age is 19 years.
Ans : (B)
19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ?
I. A is taller than C.
II. B is taller than C and D.
Ans : (C)
20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year
?
I. The month begins on Monday.
II. The month ends on Wednesday.
Ans : (D)
21. What is the total number of pages in this book ?
I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book.
II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book.
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 22–26) In each of the questions given below, there is a
statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to
consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the
assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.


22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has
decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI.
Assumptions :I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market
during this season.
II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI.
III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop
immediately after harvest.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I and II are implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
Ans : (D)
23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a
need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of
scientific discoveries in daily life.
Assumptions :I. The students after completing such education may be able
to earn their livelihood.
II. This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth.
III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage
themselves in self employment.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only III is implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (A)
24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided
to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day.
Assumptions :I. The price of crude may increase due to less production.
II. The demand of crude may remain same in future.
III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries.
(A) All are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (C)
25. Statement : “We do not want you to see our product on newspaper,
visit our shop to get a full view.” – an advertisement.
Assumptions :I. People generally decide to purchase any product after
seeing the name in the advertisement.
II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers.
III. People may come to see the product.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) Only I and II are implicit
Ans : (A)
26. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to
refuse fresh loans to major defaulters.
Assumptions :I. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters.
II. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan.


III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Both II and III are implicit
(D) Both I and II are implicit
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 27–31) In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are
followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right
although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark
your answers as under—
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If both I and II follows.
(D) Neither I nor II follows.
27. Statements :1. All hands are machines.
2. All machines are wheels.
Conclusions :I. All wheels are hands.
II. All hands are wheels.
Ans : (B)
28. Statements :1. Some buds are leaves.
2. Some leaves are red.
Conclusions :
I. Some buds are red.
II. Some leaves are not buds.
Ans : (B)
29. Statements :
1. Some stones are shells.
2. All shells are pearls.
Conclusions :I. Some stones are pearls.
II. All pearls are shells.
Ans : (A)
30. Statements :1. Brown is red and blue is green.
2. Green is pink and yellow is red.
Conclusions :
I. Yellow is brown.
II. Pink is blue.
Ans : (C)
31. Statements :
1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either.
2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles.
Conclusions :I. Some merchants have only tricycles.
II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles.
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 32–36) A number arrangement machine, when given a
particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The
following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement.
Input : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689


Step I : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689
Step II : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689
Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689
Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689
Step IV is the last step of input.
32. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the
following steps will be ‘333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799’ ?
(A) II
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) I
Ans : (B)
33. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the
following input ?
Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 6
Ans : (A)
34. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ?
Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358
(A) 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 358
(B) 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 358
(C) 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 358
(D) 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765, 358
Ans : (C)
35. If following is the second step for an input, what will be the fourth
step ?
Step II : 620, 415, 344, 537, 787, 634, 977
(A) 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 787, 977
(B) 620, 415, 344, 634, 537, 787, 977
(C) 620, 415, 344, 634, 787, 537, 977
(D) Can’t be determined
Ans : (B)
36. Which of the following is the last step for the following input ?
Input : 473, 442, 735, 542, 367, 234, 549
(A) 234, 442, 542, 473, 735, 367, 549
(B) 234, 442, 542, 735, 473, 367, 549
(C) 234, 442, 542, 473, 367, 735, 549
(D) 234, 442, 542, 735, 367, 473, 549
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 37–41) Read the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below it—
(1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They
are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
(2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist.
(3) The Manager D is married to A.


(4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer.
(5) B is the mother of F and E.
(6) There are two married couples in the family.
(7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male.
37. What is the profession of E ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Engineer
(C) Manager
(D) Psychologist
Ans : (B)
38. How is A related to E ?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father
(D) Grandfather
Ans : (D)
39. How many male numbers are there in the family ?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Two
Ans : (B)
40. What is the profession of A ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Lawyer
(C) Jeweller
(D) Manager
Ans : (A)
41. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ?
(A) AB
(B) AC
(C) AD
(D) AE
Ans : (C)
42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Papaya
(B) Mango
(C) Jackfruit
(D) Watermelon
Ans : (C)
43. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their
positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does
not belong to that group ?
(A) SPEAK : PZVKH
(B) HUSKY : BPGFS
(C) BRAIN : MRZIY


(D) BREAK : PZVIY
Ans : (B)
44. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way
while one is different. Find out which one is different ?
(A) DJWR
(B) EKXR
(C) KQDX
(D) AGTN
Ans : (A)
45. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a
certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
(A) GWOURV
(B) LZKMSU
(C) SFXPMG
(D) JOEHNP
Ans : (C)
46. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all
pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in
which the words are differently related.
(A) Watt : Power
(B) Ampere : Current
(C) Pascal : Pressure
(D) Radian : Degree
Ans : (D)
47. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series
starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series
observes this rule ?
(A) ONLKI
(B) OMKIG
(C) OMJFA
(D) OIGDC
Ans : (C)
48. If the letters of the word ‘PROTECTION’ which are at odd numbered
position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in
alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X
and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ?
(A) E
(B) O
(C) T
(D) I
Ans : (D)
49. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which
the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Ans : (C)


50. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the
dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
(1) Dissipate
(2) Dissuade
(3) Disseminate
(4) Distract
(5) Dissociate
(6) Dissect
(A) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(B) 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5
(C) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4
(D) 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2
Ans : (A)
51. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are
followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule
?
(A) SUXADF
(B) RVZDFG
(C) HKNGSW
(D) RVZDHL
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 52–56) In a certain code, letters of English alphabet are
coded as given for some words. The numeric code for each letter is given
in bracket under coded form and corresponds to the letter in the word in
the same serial order, study the coded forms of the given words and find
out the rules for their classification. Applying those rules find out the
code for the words given in capital letters in the questions that follow—
Word Codes FormATE (0) (5) (0)
NONE (5) (25) (5) (25)
UNIT (30) (5) (30) (5)
PIN (5) (10) (5)
PAGE (5) (25) (5) (25)
OPEN (30) (5) (30) (5)
ONE (0) (5) (0)
CUT (5) (10) (5)
SEAT (5) (15) (15) (5)
DEEP (5) (20) (20) (5)
52. VINA
(A) (5) (0) (5) (15)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(D) (5) (10) (5) (30)
Ans : (B)
53. AGE
(A) (0) (15) (0)
(B) (15) (15) (15)
(C) (0) (10) (10)
(D) (0) (5) (0)
Ans : (D)


54. PEAR
(A) (5) (15) (15) (5)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (10) (5) (10)
(D) (5) (30) (5) (30)
Ans : (A)
55. TIN
(A) (0) (5) (0)
(B) (5) (0) (5)
(C) (0) (10) (0)
(D) (5) (10) (5)
Ans : (D)
56. UNIT
(A) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(B) (5) (10) (30) (10)
(C) (30) (5) (30) (5)
(D) (15) (10) (10) (15)
Ans : (C)
57. If the first and second digits in the squence 7 9 8 4 5 3 6 7 8 3 4 5
are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth
digits and so on which digit would be the sixth counting from your right
?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Ans : (C)
58. The letter I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T in their order are
substituted by twelve numbers but not in that oder. 3 is assigned to R.
The difference between R and M is 7. The difference between K and M is 2.
What number is assigned to K ?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 7
(D) 11
Ans : (B)
59. Below are given six three-character numbers. The characters comprise
of digits and letters. The letter stands for one less than its serial
order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle character of the
3rd number when the numbers are arranged in the decending order ?
8G6, 3DJ, F4C, 7HB, 4E6, B8I
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
Ans : (D)


60. Which of the following will be the third digit of the fourth number
after the following numbers are arranged in descending order after
reversing the positions of the digits within each number ?
645, 869, 458, 347, 981, 792
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (A)
1. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ?
(A) Barnard’s Star
(B) Sirius A
(C) Alpha Centauri A
(D) Proxima Centauri
Ans : (D)
2. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute
approximately—
(A) 5• 8%
(B) 4• 5%
(C) 2• 59%
(D) 1• 2%
Ans : (C)
3. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to—
(A) Chess
(B) Hockey
(C) Badminton
(D) Bridge
Ans : (A)
4. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of—
(A) Orissa
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (D)
5. Balance of Payments means—
(A) Difference between export and imports
(B) Balance to be paid to the exporters
(C) Balance to be paid to the industrialists
(D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States
Ans : (A)
6. A light year is equivalent to about—
(A) 365 days
(B) Six million miles
(C) Six billion miles
(D) Six trillion miles
Ans : (D)


7. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called—
(A) Slovakia
(B) Scandinavia
(C) Netherlands
(D) Australasia
Ans : (B)
8. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is—
(A) Sonar
(B) Radar
(C) Laser
(D) Maser
Ans : (A)
9. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to
ammend Constitution ?
(A) 376
(B) 370
(C) 368
(D) 390
Ans : (C)
10. What is the name of the first successfully cloned deer ?
(A) Dawn
(B) Deluxe
(C) Demor
(D) Dewey
Ans : (D)
11. The idea of motion pictures was propounded by—
(A) N. R. Finsen
(B) T. A. Edison
(C) J. L. Baird
(D) Berliner
Ans : (B)
12. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of which of the following ?
(A) Love
(B) Peace
(C) Prophecy
(D) Medicine
Ans : (C)
13. NASA’s new space telescope is—
(A) Wise
(B) Rise
(C) Barack
(D) Telle
Ans : (A)
14. Bull fighting is the national game of—
(A) Italy
(B) Poland


(C) Spain
(D) Sudan
Ans : (C)
15. In a rare recognition, the Government of Mauritius decides to
introduce a book written by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal
Nishank in the School Syllabus of the island nation, what is the name of
the book ?
(A) Sound of Hills
(B) Sparsh Ganga
(C) Heaven
(D) Amrit
Ans : (B)
16. Who has been selected for the ‘Niwano Peace Prize, 2010’ for her
contribution to the uplift of poor women in India ?
(A) Ela Bhatt
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Punam Suri
(D) Mandakni Apte
Ans : (A)
17. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement
with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force ?
(A) February 28
(B) February 21
(C) February 11
(D) February 4
Ans : (D)
18. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic
period was called—
(A) Bali
(B) Vidatha
(C) Varman
(D) Kara
Ans : (B)
19. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are—
(A) Red blood cells
(B) Neutrophils
(C) Lymphocytes
(D) Platelets
Ans : (C)
20. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is—
(A) Hybrid text transfer protocol
(B) Hyper text transfer protocol
(C) Higher transfer text protocol
(D) Higher text transfer protocol
Ans : (B)
  #3  
14th December 2015, 12:05 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: Bank of Baroda clerk exam previous year question papers in PDF format

Hello sir, would you please give me Bank of Baroda clerk exam previous year question papers.
  #4  
14th December 2015, 12:11 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Aug 2012
Re: Bank of Baroda clerk exam previous year question papers in PDF format

Here as per your demand I am giving you BOB clerk exam paper and exam pattern.

Bank of Baroda Exam Pattern details :

Bank of Baroda Exam Pattern is of two ways as Written test and Interview.
1. Written test: This test is of objective test with 4 sections.
a. Quantitative Aptitude.
b. Reasoning.
c. Socio-economic and banking awareness.
d. English and marketing aptitude.

2. Interview: Those short listed candidates in the order of ranking in the written test as per the cut-off marks determined by the bank will be called for Interview and/or Group discussion.

BANK OF BARODA CLERK EXAM Syllabus

1. English

Questions mainly from Passage Comprehension, Common Errors, Sentence Improvement,Fill in the blanks, Cloze Test ,Paragraph Rearrangement and Antonyms and Synonyms

2. Numerical Ability

Questions mainly from simplification and few questions from Numbers system, HCF and LCM, Square Roots, Interest,Percentage, Average, Ratio and Proportion, Profit and Loss, Partnership ,Time and Work and Time and Distance, Number Series, Permutaiion and Combination, Alligation and Mixtures, Mensuration , Data Interpretation (mainly from tables and bar diagrams)

3. Reasoning Ability

Questions mainly from Alphabet Test, Number Series Test, Odd Man Out, Analogy, Arrangement, Coding and Decoding, Blood Relation, Distance and Direction, Calendar, Symbol and Notation, Statement and Conclusion and Data Sufficiency

4. Clerical Aptitude

Questions, mainly from Address matching ,News classify etc.

5. Socio-Economic, Banking Awareness

Questions mainly from socio-economic and Banking Awareness.

6. Computer Awareness

Questions mainly from History of Computer Development ,Types of Computer, Computer Languages , Computer Arithmetic ,Computer Hardware ,Computer Software ,Computer Network ,Internet etc.

For more detailed here I am attaching pdf file of the question paper.

(Bank of Baroda clerk exam previous year question papers )


  #5  
14th March 2016, 06:03 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: Bank of Baroda clerk exam previous year question papers in PDF format

Hello sir, I am preparing for Bank of Baroda Clerk exam. Can you help me by providing me with the Bank of Baroda clerk exam previous year question papers in PDF format?
  #6  
16th March 2016, 05:38 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: May 2012
Re: Bank of Baroda clerk exam previous year question papers in PDF format

As you have asked about the Bank of Baroda clerk exam previous year question papers, check below for the information

1. RBI’s open market operation transactions are carried out with a view to
regulate— (A) Liquidity in the economy (B) Prices of essential commodities
(C) Inflation (D) Borrowing power of the banks (E) All the above

2. When more than one banks are allowing credit facilities to one party in
coordination with each other under a formal arrangement, the arrangement
is generally known as— (A) Participation (B) Consortium (C) Syndication (D)
Multiple banking (E) None of these

3. Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to
control credit expansion in the economy means — (A) Sale or purchase of
Govt. securities (B) Issuance of different types of bonds (C) Auction of gold
(D) To make available direct finance to borrowers (E) None of these

4. The bank rate means— (A) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks
from borrowers (B) Rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted
bills of their borrowers (C) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on
their deposits (D) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of
exchange of commercial banks (E) None of these

5. What is an Indian Depository Receipt ? (A) A deposit account with a Public
Sector Bank (B) A depository account with any of Depositories in India (C)
An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian
depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company (D) An
instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories (E)
None of thes



6. An instrument that derives its value from a specified underlying (currency,
gold, stocks etc.) is known as— (A) Derivative (B) Securitisation Receipts (C)
Hedge Fund (D) Factoring (E) Venture Capital Funding

7. Fiscal deficit is— (A) total income less Govt. borrowing (B) total payments
less total receipts (C) total payments less capital receipts (D) total
expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing (E) None of these

8. In the Capital Market, the term arbitrage is used with reference to— (A)
purchase of securities to cover the sale (B) sale of securities to reduce the
loss on purchase (C) simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to make
profits from price (D) variation in different markets (E) Any of the above

9. Reverse repo means— (A) Injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a
country through purchase of Govt. securities (B) Absorption of liquidity from
the market by sale of Govt. securities (C) Balancing liquidity with a view to
enhancing economic growth rate (D) Improving the position of availability of
the securities in the market (E) Any of the above

10. The stance of RBI monetary policy is— (A) inflation control with adequate
liquidity for growth (B) improving credit quality of the Banks (C)
strengthening credit delivery mechanism (D) supporting investment demand
in the economy (E) Any of the above

11. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage— (A) Currency risk (B)
interest rate risk (C) currency and interest rate risk (D) cash flows in
different currencies (E) All of the above

I am also attaching the question paper
Attached Files
File Type: pdf BOB Clerk Question Paper.pdf (164.4 KB, 103 views)


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