AP PG PGMET Key

Hi buddy here I am looking for AP PGMET question paper with answer key so would you plz provide me same here ??

[pawan]

As you want here I am providing AP PGMET question paper with answer key:

1. Which of the following techniques carries the highest contraceptive failure rate?
a) Laparoscopic ring application
b) Pomeroy-s
c) Irving-s
d) Parkland-s
2. Which statement regarding testicular feminisation syndrome is FALSE?
a) Presents as primary amenorrhea
b) Inherited as X linked recessive
c ) Phenotypically male
d) Karyotype is 46,XY
3. Diethyl stilbesterol exposure in utero may cause the following EXCEPT
a) T-shaped uterus
b) Increased renal anomalies
c) vaginal adenosis
d) Cervical hoods and cockscombs
4. In a vaginal wet smear, -clue cells- indicate infection by
a) Gardnerella vaginalis
b) Trichomonas vaginalis
c) Candida albicans
d) Chalmydia trachomatis
5. After 72 hours following unprotected coitus, the emergency contraception of choice is
a) Levonorgestrel
b) Premarin
c) Yuzpe method
d) Copper T


6. The following are indications for Cesarean section EXPECT
a) Mentoanterior face presentation
b) Persistent Brow presentation
c) Central placenta previa
d) Constriction ring with fetal distress

7. Stargazer fetus is seen in
a) Chalmydia trachomatis infection of the new born
b) Breech presentation with fetal head in extrme hyperextension
c) Bilateral retinoblastoma in utero causing bilateral cat-s eye reflex
d. Face to pubis occurrence in occipitoposterior position


8. select the true statement regarding Hydatiform mole
a) Complete set has a dual set of maternal genes
b) Uterus is larger than the period of amenorrhea
c) Fetal parts are felt separately from the molar tissue
d) all the above are true


9. All the following indicate severe preeclampsia EXCEPT
a) Gross hematuria
b) Pulmonary edema
c) Visual disturbances
d) Platelet count of 0.6 lakhs/cu.mm
10. Kleihauer Betke test is used to detect
a) Ferning pattern in follicular phase
b) Cephalopelvic disproportion
c) Fetomaternal blood leak
d) Sperm-cervical mucus interaction


11. The following is / are helpful in a child with severe falciparum malaria with high parasitemia
a) IV corticosteroids (dexamethasone)
b) Exchange transfusion
c) Hyperbaric oxygen
d) All the above

12. Continuous prophylactic anticonvulcontinusant therapy is not needed in a child with febrile convulsion with
a) Developmental delay
b) Family history of Epilepsy
c) Typical simple febrile fits
d) Persistent neurological deficit


13. Key features of kangaroo mother care are all the following EXCEPT
a) skin to skin contact between mother and baby
b) Exclusive breast feeding
c) Initiated in a facility and continued at home
d) Done for babies with cyanosis


14. Nipple confusion means
a) Baby fed with a bottle finding it difficult and confusing to suckle at breast
b) Baby not able to suckle with bottle
c) Baby not able to feed with spoon
d) Baby not able to feed with paladin


15. Bag and mask ventilation is contraindicated in newborn resuscitation with clinical suspicion of
a) Diaphragmatic hernia
b) Intracranial hemorrhage
c) Meconium aspiration
d) Pneumothorax

16. When mother complains that baby is more comfortable and breathes better when held against shoulder, what important clinical problem do you suspect?
a) Nose block
b) Psychological anxiety or insecurity
c) Aerophagy with abdominal fullness
d) Orthopnea


17. Commenest cause of meningoencephalitis in children is
a) HSV
b) Measles
c) Arbovirus
d) Enterovirus


18. The following component of human milk is protective against Giardia lambia infection
a) Lysozyme
b) Lactoferrin
c) Bifidus factor
d) Glycoconjugate


19. Mutation in NPHS1 gene causes which disease?
a) Alport syndrome
b) Congenital finnish type nephritic syndrome
c) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
d) Nail patella syndrome


20. Concerning attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, which is true?
a) Impulsive behaviour is a feature
b) Higher incidence in tic disorders
c) May respond to treatment with stimulants such as amphetamine
d) All the above
1

21. Bohler-s angle is decreased in fracture of
a) Calcaneum
b) Talus
c) Navicular
d) Cuboid

22. Select the true statement regarding “Wandering” Acetabulum
a) acetabulum moves forward in central fracture dislocation
b) protrusion acetabulum in post operative complication of Moores prosthesis in old age
c) in tuberculosis of the hip femoral head dislocate from acetabulum on the illinum and forms
a pseudo acetabulum
d) acetabulum changes its position on to illiium in suppurative infections of hip


23. The classification for diaphyseal femoral fracture comminution was given by
a) Sciensheimer
b) Evans
c) Winquist and Hansen
d) Frykman

24. Treatment of choice ifor fracture shaft fumur in adults is
a) Locked intra medullary nailing
b) External fixation
c) Closed reduction and cast immobilisation
d) Plate fixation

25. All are bone forming tumors EXPCEPT
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Osteoid osteoma
c) Osteochondroma
d) Osteoblastoma


26. Hill sach-s lesion is seen in which aspect of the head of the humerus?
a) posterolateral
b) posteromedial
c) Anterolateral
d) Anteromadial
27. Never most likely to be injured in anterior dislocation of shoulder joint
a) Musculocutaneous
b) Radial
c ) Ulnar
d) Axillary

28. Jefferson-s fracture is
a) Fracture of C1 vertebra
b) Fracture of C2 vertebra
c) Fracture dislocation of C1 over C2 vertebra
d) Fracture of C5 vertebra

29. Which one of the following bone tumors typically affects the epiphysis of a long bone?
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Ewing-s sarcoma
c) Chondroblastoma
d) Chondromyxoid fibroma
30) Clawing of the medial 2 fingers is seen more pronounced following the
a) High Ulnar nerve palsy
b) combined ulnar and medial nerve palsy
c) Low ulnar nerve palsy
d) Tardy ulnar nerve palsy

31. Atopic dermatitis is characterised by the following EXCEPT
a) Pruritic exudative eruptions on upper body
b) onset after 30 years of age
c) Tendency to recur
d) Elevated Ig E


32. All the following are true regarding Porphyrea cutanea tarda EXCEPT
a) inflammatory Blisters on sun exposed sites
b) Hypertrichosis
c) Hydroxychloroquine is useful
d) Skin fragility of dorsal surfaces of hands


33. The following are true regarding Leprosy EXCEPT
a) Anesthetic skin lesions
b) Blindness due to optic neuritis
c) Worse prognosis in lepromatous leprosy compared to tuberculoid leprosy
d) Testicular atrophy and azoospermia


34. A woman came with dysuria and purulent vaginal discharge . Smear shows Gram negative intracellular diplococcic. Which one of the following is true
a) Treponemal Elisa Immunoassay will confirm diagnosis
b) Chlamydia trachomatis is the likely etiological agent
c) A single dose of ciproflaxin or ceftriaxone will suffice
d) Her sexual partner cn be reassured that it s not a sexually transmitted disease
35. Which of the following is a Non Nucleoside Reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
a) Emtricitabine
b) Delavirdine
c) Nelfinavir
d) Didanosine


36. Buruli ulcer is caused by
a) Mycobacterium ulcerans
b) Fusobactrium ulcerans + Treponema vencenti
c) Leishmania tropica
d) Dracunculus medinensis


37. An elderly patient come with severe depression, delusions, agitation, with mild liver dysfunction. The most effective treatment option would be
a) Electroconvulsive therapy
b) Amitryptiline
c) Selegiline skin patches
d) Cognitive behavioural therapy


38. Briquet-s syndrome refers to
a) chronic somatisation disorder with pain, vomiting, dizziness and sexual dysfunction
b) recurrent abdominal surgeries and scars for abdominal pain
c) catatonic schizophrenia
d) agoraphobia + anxiety + anhodynia

39. Positive end expiratory pressure ventilation can cause the following EXCEPT
a) sodium retention
b) Decreased cardiac output
c) Increased residual volume
d) Decreased central venous pressure


40. Which of the following general anesthetics can provoke seizures?
a) desflurane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Isoflurane
d) Enflurane


41. Which of the following indicates potency of general anesthetics?
a) minimal alveoral concentration
b) solubility of anesthetic in blood
c) solubility of anesthetic in tissues
d) alveolar exchange


42. Anaesthesia for head and neck surgeries is challenging due to concerns about airway safety . Following tubes helps to secure the airway for head and neck surgeries, EXCEPT
a) Double lumen endotracheal tubes
b) south pole endotracheal tubes
c) flexometallic tubes
d) Tracheostomy tubes

43. Cells are most radioresistant in
a) S phase
b) M phase
c) G2 phase
d) G1 phase

44. Male breast cancer is most commonly associated with mutation of
a) BRCA 1
b) BRCA 2
c) C-myc
d) N-myc


45. Calcification in plain x-ray abdomen is seen in
a) Wilm-tumor
b) Mesoblastic nephroma
c) Hepatoblastoma
d) Neuroblastoma


46. The following are sonographic signs of Deep Vien thrombosis EXCEPT
a) -Winking- sign positive
b) Loss of vein compressibility
c) Blunted Doppler flow response to calf compression
d) Visualisation of low echognic, homogenous mass


47. the following are true regarding Interferon Gamma release assays in tuberculosis EXCEPT
a) Antigens from all BCG strains and nontuberculous mycobacteria are present in the assay
b) Specificity of the test is superior to Tuberculin skin test in BCG vaccinated patients
c) Sensitivity is comparable to Tuberculin skin test
d) Sensitivity is reduced in HIV infection with low CD4 count

48. Regarding cryptic miliary tuberculosis all are correct EXCEPT
a) It has a chronic course
b) It causes mild intermittent fever and anemia
c) Meningeal involvement precedes death
d) It is commonly seen in children

49. A patient with pleural effusion has the following test results
Serum protein= 7G/dL
Pleural fluid protein=5G/dL
Serum glucose=90mg/dL
Pleural fluid glucose=20mg/dL
Pleural fluid LDH =300 units
Probable diagnosis is
a) CHF patient not on diuretics
b) CHF patient with diabetes and on insulin
c) Renal failure
d) Rheumatoid arthritis


50. A 30 year previously healthy male came with 2 days fever and cough with purulent sputum. Examination reveals an impaired note with bronchial breathing and crackles and increased vocal resonance. He is alert. BP=100/70. Respiratory rate =24/min. Blood urea=20 mg%. Which of the following is the best treatment for him?
a) OP treatment with Clarithromycin 500mg BID for one week
b) Admit in ward and give Levofloxacin orally 750mg OD + Inj. Ceftriaxone 1G IV BID for one week
c) Admit in ICCU and give Inj. Ceftriaxone 2G IV OD + IV levofloxacin 750mg OD for one week
d) Piperacillin + tazobactam 4.5 G qid for one week