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15th December 2014, 04:37 PM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: AIPMT sample paper

136. The floral formula K(5) C(5) A5G(2)is that of
(1) Tobacco (2) Tulip
(3) Soybean (4) Sunnhemp
Sol. Answer (1)
This floral formula is characteristic to Solanaceae family. e.g. Tobacco, Potato, Tomato.
137. An example of axile placentation is
(1) Marigold (2) Argemone
(3) Dianthus (4) Lemon
Sol. Answer (4)
Marigold–Basal placentation, Argemone – Parietal placentation, Dianthus – Free central placentation.
138. In barley stem vascular bundles are
(1) Closed and radial (2) Open and scattered
(3) Closed and scattered (4) Open and in a ring
Sol. Answer (3)
Barley is a monocot.
139. Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately termed
(1) Anabolic (2) Catabolic
(3) Paraboilc (4) Amphibolic
Sol. Answer (4)
It supports both catabolism and anabolism.
(33)
140. Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of
(1) Gram (2) Sorghum
(3) Mustard (4) Soybean
Sol. Answer (2)
Mesophyll is characteristically undifferentiated in monocot leaf e.g., Sorghum.
141. Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical tissue and cuticle is characteristic of
(1) Hydrophytes (2) Xerophytes
(3) Mesophytes (4) Epiphytes
Sol. Answer (1)
It is characteristic to hydrophytes. These are anatomical adaptations to survive in aquatic condition.
142. Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by
(1) Position of protoxylem (2) Absence of secondary xylem
(3) Absence of secondary phloem (4) Presence of cortex
Sol. Answer (1)
Dicot root in younger stages exhibit clear cut exarch condition.
143. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of
(1) ATP (2) NADPH
(3) ATP and NADPH (4) ATP, NADPH and O2
Sol. Answer (1)
Cyclic photophosphorylation used only PS-I and releases ATP only. Both ATP and NADPH are produced
during
non cyclic pathway
144. In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the
respectively activity
of the human heart?
(1) P-depolarisation of atria (2) R-repolarisation of ventricles
(3) S-start of systole (4) T-end of diastole
Sol. Answer (1)
P-wave in ECG represents depolarisation of atria; QRS wave represents depolarisation of ventricles; ST
wave
depolarisation of ventricle. T is for repolarisation of ventricles.
145. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory products of
(1) Frog (2) Man
(3) Earthworm (4) Cockroach
Sol. Answer (4)
Uric acid is the nitrogenous waste material excreted by cockroach. The excretory waste of frog and man
is
urea. Earthworm is mainly ureotelic but when plenty of water is available it becomes ammonotelic.
146. Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally
undigested?
(1) Starch and cellulose (2) Protein and starch
(3) Starch and fat (4) Fat and cellulose
Sol. Answer (4)
30% starch is digested in the buccal cavity by 〈-salivary amylase. Cellulose cannot be digested because it
is a polymer of glucose with ®-linkage. We do not have ®-amylase, so when the food reaches the
stomach
fat and cellulose are totally undigested.
(34)
147. Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves
it?
(1) Iris - Involuntary smooth muscle
(2) Heart wall - Involuntary unstriated muscle
(3) Biceps of upper arm - Smooth muscle fibres
(4) Abdominal wall - Smooth muscle
Sol. Answer (1)
Iris which controls the size of the pupil is made of involuntary smooth muscles.
Heart wall is made up of striated, involuntary cardiac muscles.
Biceps of upper arm is made up of skeletal muscles (striated).
Abdominal wall is made up of vestigeal segmental muscles.
148. Compared to blood our lymph has
(1) More RBCs and less WBCs (2) No plasma
(3) Plasma without proteins (4) More WBCs and no RBCs
Sol. Answer (4)
Lymph has WBCs and no RBCs. It has less proteins and can coagulate.
149. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed?
(1) There will be no micturition (2) Urine will not collect in the bladder
(3) Micturition will continue (4) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder
Sol. Answer (3)
If the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder are totally removed the urine will collect in the bladder to the
maximum; then micturition will continue drop by drop. This results in urinary incontinence.
150. Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature?
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Cerebellum (4) Cerebrum
Sol. Answer (1)
Hypothalamus has thermoregulatory centre.
151. A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother's milk which is white in colour but the stools which
the infant
passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to
(1) Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum (2) Intestinal juice
(3) Bile pigments passed through bile juice (4) Undigested milk protein casein
Sol. Answer (3)
The yellow colour of the faeces in due to a pigment stercobilin. It is formed by the breakdown of bile
pigments
i.e., bilirubin brought to intestine through the bile juice.
152. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in
(1) Clotting of blood (2) Defence mechanisms of body
(3) Osmotic balance of body fluids (4) Oxygen transport in the blood
Sol. Answer (2)
Antibodies are gamma globulins synthesised by lymph nodes.
(35)
153. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in
(1) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
(2) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
(3) Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
(4) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium
Sol. Answer (2)
The male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired bulbourethral glands;
secretions of these glands constitute seminal plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium and certain
enzymes.
154. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the
correct set
of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D
A
B
C
D
A B C D
(1) Ureter Seminal vesicle Prostate Bulbourethral gland
(2) Ureter Prostate Seminal vesicle Bulbourethral gland
(3) Vas deferens Seminal vesicle Prostate Bulbourethral gland
(4) Vas deferens Seminal vesicle Bulbourethral gland Prostate
Sol. Answer (3)
A is vas deferens
B is seminal vesicle
C is prostate gland
D is bulbourethral gland
155. Which one of the following is the correct matching of three items and their grouping category?
Items Group
(1) Cytosine, uracil, thiamine - Pyrimidines
(2) Malleus, incus, cochlea - Ear ossicles
(3) Ilium, ischium, pubis - Coxal bones of pelvic girdle
(4) Actin, myosin, rhodopsin - Muscle proteins
Sol. Answer (3)
Each half of the pelvic girdle is made up of a single bone Os innominatum also called as coxal bone.
Each
coxal bone is made up of 3 bones i.e., Ilium, ischium and pubis.
156. Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?
(1) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
(2) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen
(3) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+
(4) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries
(36)
Sol. Answer (3)
Some substances like fructose and some amino acids are absorbed with the help of the carrier ions like
Na+.
Their mechanism is called the facilitated diffusion.
157. Which one of the following correctly describes the location of some body parts in the earthworm
pheretima?
(1) Two pairs of testes in 10th
and 11th segments
(2) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16-18 segments
(3) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4 - 7 segments
(4) One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th segments.
Sol. Answer (1)
In earthworm there are two pairs of testes one pair in 10th and one pair in 11th segment. There are two
pairs
of accessory glands, one pair in 17th and one pair in 19th segment. There are four pairs of spermathecae
present in 6, 7, 8 and 9th segment. One pair of ovaries attached at the intersegmental septum of 12th and
13th segment.
158. Elbow joint is an example of :
(1) Ball and socket joint (2) Pivot joint
(3) Hinge joint (4) Gliding joint
Sol. Answer (3)
Elbow joint is hinge joint as it involves the movement only in one plane.
159. Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit?
(1) Free-living gametophyte (2) Dependent sporophyte
(3) Heterospory (4) Haplontic life cycle
Sol. Answer (3)
Development of two kinds of spores (heterospory) is marked as the primary requirement to develop the
seed.
160. One of the synthetic auxin is :
(1) IBA (2) NAA
(3) IAA (4) GA
Sol. Answer (2)
IBA and IAA are naturally occurring auxins
161. Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids?
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Indole butyric acid
(3) Indole-3-acetic acid (4) Gibberellic acid
Sol. Answer (1)
Auxins are derived using tryptophan; gibberellic acid is derived using acetyl co A.
162. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by
(1) Sucker (2) Runner
(3) Offset (4) Rhizome
Sol. Answer (1)
Suckers are used in mint to propagate profusely
(37)
163. Which one of the following plants is monoecious?
(1) Papaya (2) Marchantia
(3) Pinus (4) Cycas
Sol. Answer (3)
Both sex organs are present on the same plant
164. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by
(1) Differentiation of mammary glands (2) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
(3) Release of oxytocin from pituitary (4) Fully developed foetus and placenta
Sol. Answer (4)
Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals for parturition originate from
the
fully developed foetus and placenta which induce mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex.
165. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
(1) Menstruation : breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised
(2) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the
secretion of progesterone
(3) Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of
Graafian follicle
(4) Development of corpus luteum : Secretory phase and increased secretion of
progesterone
Sol. Answer (4)
Myometrium does not breakdown during menstruation, so there is no regeneration of myometrium in
proliferative phase. Ovulation results in the formation of corpus luteum and thus progesterone will
increase.
166. Which one of the following is the most likely root cause why menstruation is not taking place in
regularly cycling
human female?
(1) Retention of well-developed corpus luteum
(2) Fertilisation of the ovum
(3) Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining
(4) Maintenance of high concentration of sex-hormones in the blood stream
Sol. Answer (4)
If menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female, it indicates the maintenance of high
concentration of sex hormones in the blood stream.
167. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature
human testis
is
(1) Spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocyte-sperms
(2) Spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatid-sperms
(3) Spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid-sperms
(4) Spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogonia-sperms
Sol. Answer (3)
The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in mature human
testes
is Spermatogonia Primary spermatocyte Secondary spermatocyte Spermatid Sperms.
(38)
168. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect:
(1) Fertilization
(2) Formation of zygote
(3) Pattern of cleavage
(4) Number of blastomeres produced
Sol. Answer (3)
The pattern of cleavage division depends on the amount and distribution of yolk in the cytoplasm. Yolk is
an
inert material and retards the passage of cleavage furrow.
169. When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below
the age
of one year are likely to suffer from
(1) Pellagra (2) Marasmus
(3) Rickets (4) Kwashiorkor
Sol. Answer (2)
Both marasmus and kwashiorkor are PEM disorders. Marasmus occurs in infants below the age of one.
170. Which one of the following types of organisms occupy more than one trophic level in a pond
ecosystem?
(1) Frog (2) Phytoplankton
(3) Fish (4) Zooplankton
Sol. Answer (3)
Larger and small fishes function at different trophic levels
171. Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?
(1) Tea (2) Teak
(3) Mango (4) Wheat
Sol. Answer (3)
About thousand varieties of mango are found in India.
172. Montreal Protocol aims at
(1) Control of CO2 emission (2) Reduction of ozone depleting substances
(3) Biodiversity conservation (4) Control of water pollution
Sol. Answer (2)
Montreal protocol (1987) - A land mark international agreement to reduce ODS.
173. Chipko movement was launched for the protection of
(1) Wet lands (2) Grasslands
(3) Forests (4) Livestock
Sol. Answer (3)
Chipko movement (tree hugging movement).
174. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere is
(1) Oak Lantana Volvox Hydrilla Pistia Scirpus
(2) Oak Lantana Scirpus Pistia Hydrilla Volvox
(3) Volvox Hydrilla Pistia Scirpus Lantana Oak
(4) Pistia Volvox Scirpus Hydrilla Oak Lantana
(39)
Sol. Answer (3)
Volvox -Plankton stage, Hydrilla - Submerged stage
Pistia -Floating stage, Scirpys - Reed swamp stage
Lantana -Woodland stage, Oak - Climax stage
175. A country with a high rate of population growth took measures to reduce it. The figure below shows
age-sex
pyramids of populations A and B twenty years apart. Select the correct interpretation about them :
Males Females
Males Females
Age
70 +
60 – 69
50 – 59
40 – 49
30 – 39
20 – 29
10 – 19
0 – 9
Age (in years)
1512 9 6 3 0 3 6 9 12 15
'A'
Age
70 +
60 – 69
50 – 59
40 – 49
30 – 39
20 – 29
10 – 19
0 – 9
Age (in years)
15 12 9 6 3 0 3 6 9 12 15
'B'
Interpretations
(1) "A" is the earlier pyramid and no change has occurred in the growth rate
(2) "A" is more recent and shows slight reduction in the growth rate
(3) "B" is earlier pyramid and shows stabilised growth rate
(4) "B" is more recent showing that population is very young
Sol. Answer (2)
The number of young individual is decreased in pyramid ‘A’.
176. Steps taken by the Government of India to control air pollution include :
(1) Use of non-polluting Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and trucks.
(2) Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel
(3) Compulsory PUC (Pollution Under Control) certification of petrol driven vehicles which tests for carbon
monoxide and hydrocarbons.
(4) Permission to use only pure diesel with a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for vehicles.
(40)
Sol. Answer (3)
Presently CNG is used only in National Capital, Delhi.
177. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river water
(1) Increases when sewage gets mixed with river water
(2) Remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs
(3) Has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water
(4) Gives a measure of salmonella in the water
Sol. Answer (1)
Mixing of sewage decreases DO and increases BOD, due to increased aerobic digestion of organic
waste.
178. DDT residues are repidly passed through food chain causing biomagnification because DDT is
(1) Water soluble (2) Lipo soluble
(3) Moderately toxic (4) Non-toxic to aquatic animals
Sol. Answer (2)
DDT (Organochlorine) is lipophilic and accumulates in lipid bilayer of PM.
179. Global agreement in specific control strategies to reduce the release of ozone depleting substances,
was
adopted by
(1) The Vienna Convention (2) Rio de Janeiro Conference
(3) The Montreal Protocol (4) The Koyoto Protocol
Sol. Answer (3)
Kyoto protocol – To mitigate climatic change and to reduce overall green house gas emission.
Rio de Janerio conference i.e., Earth Summit, held in Brazil in 1992.
180. Somaclones are obtained by
(1) Genetic engineering (2) Tissue culture
(3) Plant breeding (4) Irradiation
Sol. Answer (2)
Plants regenerated from a single culture (clonal propagation) invitro are called somaclones.
181. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism?
(1) Root-knot of vegetables-Meloidogyne sp (2) Late blight of potato - Alternaria solani
(3) Black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis (4) Loose smut of wheat - Ustilago nuda
Sol. Answer (2)
Late blight of potato–Phytophthora infestans.
182. Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide?
(1) Xanthomonas campestris (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Trichoderma harzianum (4) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV)
Sol. Answer (1)
Xanthomonas campestris–Bacterial rot in crucifers.
(41)
183. Which of the following plant species you would select for the production of bioethanol?
(1) Jatropha (2) Brassica
(3) Zea mays (4) Pongamia
Sol. Answer (3)
Zea mays is used for bio-ethanol production.
Jatropha and Pongamia are biodiesel plants.
184. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer?
(1) Azolla (2) Glomus
(3) Azotobacter (4) Frankia
Sol. Answer (4)
Frankia is symbiotic N2 fixing actinomycetes, forming root nodules in non legumes. e.g., Casuarina.
185. A health disorder that results from the deficiency of thyroxine in a adults and characterised by (i) a
low metabolic
rate, (ii) increase in body weight and (iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is
(1) Cretinism (2) Hypothyroidism
(3) Simple goitre (4) Myxoedema
Sol. Answer (4)
Deficiency of thyroxine in adults results in myxoedema. The symptoms of this diseases are low metabolic
rate, increases in body weight and there is retention of water in facial tissue. Thyroxine is a calorigenic
hormone.
186. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis
(2) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain
(3) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis
(4) Heroin accelerates body functions
Sol. Answer (1)
Malignant tumors are cancerous. Malignant neoplasms or the cancerous cells will break from the tumor
and
spread through blood and lymph throughout the body. This movement is called as metastasis.
187. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
(1) Typhoid, Tuberculosis (2) Ringowrm, AIDS
(3) Common Cold, AIDS (4) Dysentery, Common Cold
Sol. Answer (3)
Typhoid and tuberculosis are caused by bacteria and ringworm by fungi.
188. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering
(1) Weakened germs (2) Dead germs
(3) Preformed antibodies (4) Wide spectrum antibiotics
Sol. Answer (3)
A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering preformed antibodies. This is an
example
of artificially acquired passive immunity.
(42)
189. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from
(1) Headache (2) Allergy
(3) Nausea (4) Cough
Sol. Answer (2)
The drugs given for the treatment of allergy are anti-histamines, steroids and adrenaline hormone.
190. Alzhimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of
(1) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) (2) Dopamine
(3) Glutamic acid (4) Acetylcholine
Sol. Answer (4)
Alzheimer's diseases is due to the deficiency of acetylcholine. This disorder is associated with loss of
memory
of past events.
191. Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?
(1) Penicillium expansum
(2) Trichoderma harzianum
(3) Meloidogyne incognita
(4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Sol. Answer (4)
Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated transformation is the most common method of transformation used
for
the production of transgenic plants.
192. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in contemporary biology as
(1) Source of industrial enzyme
(2) Indicator of water pollution
(3) Insecticide
(4) Agent for production of dairy products
Sol. Answer (3)
Bacillus thuringiensis produces a protein endotoxin which acts as insecticide.
193. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
(1) Textile - amylase (2) Detergents - lipase
(3) Alcohol - nitrogenase (4) Fruit juice - pectinase
Sol. Answer (3)
Nitrogenase enzyme is involved in the formation of ammonia.
194. Polyethylene glycol method is used for
(1) Energy production from sewage (2) Gene transfer without a vector
(3) Biodiesel production (4) Seedless fruit production
Sol. Answer (2)
(43)
One of the method of direct/vectorless gene transfer is, chemical mediated gene transfer. This involves
use
of PEG (polyethylene glycol).
195. Transgenic plants are the ones
(1) Grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field
(2) Produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium
(3) Generated by introducing foreign DNA in to a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
(4) Produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium
Sol. Answer (3)
Transgenic plants have the foreign gene called as transgene. They have had their DNA manipulated to
possess
and express (foreign) gene.
196. What is true about Bt toxin?
(1) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins
(2) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut
(3) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus
(4) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its multiplication
Sol. Answer (2)
Bt. toxin is produced in inactive form as protoxin but it gets converted into active form in gut of insects.
197. The genetic defect-adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by
(1) Enzyme replacement therapy
(2) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
(3) Administering adenosine deaminase activators
(4) Introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages
Sol. Answer (4)
Gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA if introduced into cells at early embryonic stages, could be
a permanent cure.
198. There is no DNA in
(1) Hair root (2) An enucleated ovum
(3) Mature RBCs (4) A mature spermatozoan
Sol. Answer (3)
There is no DNA in mature RBC. During the maturation of RBC there is degeneration of mitochondria,
nucleus
and golgi. An enucleated ovcum has mitochondria which contains DNA.
199. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to
(1) Thymus (2) Thyroid
(3) Thalamus (4) Tonsil
Sol. Answer (1)
The maturation of T-lymphocytes occurs in thymus; so 'T' in T-lymphocytes represents thymus.
200. Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following national park?
(1) Jim Corbett (2) Ranthambhor
(3) Sunderbans (4) Gir
Sol. Answer (4)
Gir National Park–Lion.
  



Biology
Q. 1. Biological organisation starts with:
a. Atomic level
b. Submicroscopic molecular level
c. Cellular level
d. Organismic level
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 2. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements
including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and:
a. calcium and phosphorous
b. phosphorus and sulphur
c. sulphur and magnesium
d. magnesium and sodium
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 3. Which one of the following is an example of negative feed back loop in humans?
a. Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.
b. Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold.
c. Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles in to the eye
d. Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food.
Sol. When the set point of hypothalamus is disturbed by high temperature, it stimulates
vasodilation and sweating while in low temperature there is vasoconstriction and shivering.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 4. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
a. Homoiothermy
b. Seasonal migration]
c. Thick subcutaneous fat
d. Convergent evolution
Sol. Shark is poikilothermous. All three species show adaptations for aquatic life while these are
not closely related. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
a. Phospholipids
b. Cholesterol
c. Glycolipids
d. Proline
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 6. Select the wrong statement from the following:
a. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria.
b. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain and inner and an outer membrane
c. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space
bounded by the thylakoid membrane
d. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 7. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the
formation of:
a. Nucleic acids
b. ATP is small stepwise units
c. ATP in one large oxidation reaction
d. Sugars
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 8. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same
value, the following is most likely to occur:
a. a skewed curve
b. a normal distribution
c. a bi-modal distribution
d. a T -shaped curve
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 9. Which one of the following is a slime mould?
a. Anabaena
b. Rhizopus
c. Physarum
d. Thiobacillus
Sol. Physarum is an acellular slime mould. Correct choice: (3)
Q.10. For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, which one of the following pairs is
suitable?
a. Wheat and maiden hair fern
b. Sugarcane and sunflower
c. Teak and pine
d. Deodar and fern
Sol. Secondary growth occurs in gymnosperms and dicots. Correct choice: (3)
Q.11. Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong?
a. They cause disease in plants
b. They are also called PPLO
c. They are pleomorphic
d. They are sensitive to penicillin
Sol. Mycoplasma is not sensitive to penicillin due to absence of cell wall. Correct choice: (4)
Q.12. In the prothallus of vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different
times. As a result:
a. self fertilization is prevented
b. there is no change in success rate of fertilization
c. there is high degree of sterility
d. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
Sol. In vascular cryptogam i.e. in pteridophytes gametophyte is monoecious but protandrous to
avoid self fertilization. Correct choice: (1)
Q.13. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they:
a. have same number of chromosomes
b. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds
c. have more than 90 per cent similar genes
d. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolities.
Sol. The members of a species are inter-fertile and produce fertile offsprings. Correct choice: (2)
Q.14. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following
characters you should choose?
a. Chemical composition of the cell wall
b. Types of pigments present in the cell
c. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
d. Structural organization of thallus.
Sol. The various algae are classified mainly on the types of pigments present in their cells.
Correct choice: (2)
Q.15. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets?
a. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
b. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
c. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
d. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
Sol. The male gametes of bryophytes are biflagellete, and those of pteriodophytes are
multiflagellate, except Selaginella having biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of
gymnosperms are non motile except those of Cycas having multiciliate gametes. Correct choice:
(1)
Q.16. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
a. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
b. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms formed
c. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
d. an opening in the mega gametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg.
Sol. In gymnosperms, below micropylar beak some of the cells of nucellus of ovule disintigerate
to form pollen chamber. Correct choice: (3)
Q.17. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by:
a. peristome teeth
b. elaters
c. indusium
d. calyptra
Sol. In some liverworts like Marchantia spore dispersal is due to hydrochasy and is aided by
elaters. Correct choice: (2)
Q.18. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes?
a. Morchella and Mushrooms
b. Birds’ nest fungi and Pufballs
c. Pufballs and Claviceps
d. Peziza and Stink horns
Sol. Bird’s nest fungi – Cyathus, Pufballs – Lycoperdon, Both belong to the class
Basidiomycetes. Correct choice: (3)
Q.19. ICBN stands for:
a. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
b. Indian Congress of Biological Names
c. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
d. International Congress of Biological Names
Sol. ICBN is one of the codes of nomenclature. It stands for International Code of Botanical
Nomenclature. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 20. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of:
a. Claviceps
b. Phytophthora
c. Uncinula
d. Ustilago
Sol. Ergot of rye is caused by Claviceps purpurea. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 21. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of
adaptation, the phenomenon is termed:
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. Microevolution
d. Co-evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. Adaptive radiation refers to:
a. Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
b. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
c. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
d. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 23. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on
the basis of their ability for:
a. growth the movement
b. responsiveness to touch
c. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
d. reproduction
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 24. The Finches of Galapogas islands provide an evidence in favour of:
a. Biogeographical Evolution
b. Special Creation
c. Evolution due to Mutation
d. Retrogressive Evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 25. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is:
a. Random creation of new species
b. No change in the isolation faunax
c. Preventing Speciation
d. Speciation through reproductive isolation
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 26. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that:
a. Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
b. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
c. The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial
area
d. The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or
non-polluted area.
Sol. It is an example of directional selection. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 27. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:
a. Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
b. Crystallization of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
c. Interaction of water, air and clay under
d. Effect of solar radiation of chemicals
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 28. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in:
a. Homo habilis
b. Homo neanderthalensis
c. Homo erectus
d. Ramapithecus
Sol. Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in the range of 680-720 c.c. & that of
Homo erectus erectus 775-990 c.c,
Homo erectus pekinensis 915-1200 c.c.
Homo neanderthalensis 1300-1600 c.c. Correct choice:
Q. 29. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
a. Crocodile
b. Sea Urchin
c. Obelia
d. Lemur
- 4-Chambered heart
- Parapodia
– Metagenesis
– Thecodont
(1) Only A and B
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A and D
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 30. Select the correct statement from the following:
a. Mutations are random and directional
b. Darwinian variations are small and directionless
c. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
d. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrate.
Sol. It explains natural selection. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 31. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing
it?
a. Ventral heart
b. Post-anal tail
c. Ventral Central nervous system
d. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in
embryo
- Scorpion
- Octopus
– Leech
– Chamaeleon
Sol. Scorpion has dorsal heart. Post-anal tail is found only in chordates. Pharyngeal gill slits are
present in the embryo of chameleon. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 32. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
a. Ovoparity
b. Homoiothermy
c. Toothless jaws
d. Functional post -anal tail
Sol. Only birds & mammals are homoiothermous. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 33. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver fish?
a. They all belong to the same phylum
b. They all have jointed paired appendages
c. They all possess dorsal heart
d. None of them is aquatic
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 34. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
b. Stem cells are specialized cells
c. There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
d. All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 35. “Foolish Seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of:
a. IAA
b. GA
c. ABA
d. 2, 4 – D
Sol. Foolish seeding disease (Bakane disease) of rice is due to a fungus Giberella fujikuroi.
Yabuta and Sumuki obtained achemical from the fungus and called gibbrellic acid. Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 36. Passage cells are thin- walled cells found in:
a. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
b. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.
c. phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other plant
parts.
d. testa of seed to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination.
Sol. Passage cells also called transfusion tissue are found in the endodermis meant for rapid
transport of water from cortex to pericycle. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 37. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is:
a. Quinone
b. Cytochrome
c. Iron-sulphur protein
d. Ferredoxin.
Sol. The first acceptor of electros from an excited chlorophyll is quinone. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 38. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is
located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This
enzyme is:
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. lactate dehydrogenase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
d. malate dehydrogenase
Sol. Succinate dehydrogenase is a common enzyme for TCA and ETC. It is located on inner
mitochondrial membrane. Rest of the TCA enzymes are present in mitochondrial matrix. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 39. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is:
a. 620 nm
b. 640 nm
c. 680 nm
d. 720 nm
Sol. The Pr form of phytochrome receives red light (600-680 nm) and changes into Pfr. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 40. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is type of:
a. Autonomic movement of growth
b. Autonomic movement of locomotion
c. Autonomic movement of variation
d. Paratonic movement of growth.
Sol. Opening of floral bud into flowers, is due to epinasty, a type of autonomic movement of
growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 41. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
a. IAA - Cell wall elongation
b. Abscissic Acid - Stomatal closure
c. Gibberellic Acid - Leaf fall
d. Cytokinin - Cell division
Sol. Leaf fall is due to interaction of auxin and ethylene. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 42. One gene - one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in:
a. Diploccus pneumoniae
b. Neurospora crassa
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Escherichia Coli
Sol. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was given by Beadle and Tatum in red mould
(Neurospora crassa). Correct choice: (2)
Q. 43. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of:
a. Microspore mother cell
b. Microspore
c. Generative cell
d. Vegetative cell
Sol. During the development of male gametophyte first of all two cells – generative cell and tube
nucleus are formed from a pollen. This twocelled stage is called pollen grain. Finally the
generative cell divides to form 2-male gametes. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 44. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure -
7atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3
atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be:
a. Movement of water of Cell A to B
b. Movement of water from Cell B to A
c. No movement of water
d. Equilibrium between the two
Sol. The direction of movement of water is from low to high DPD. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 45. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of:
a. Epidermis
b. Mesophyll
c. Bundle Sheath
d. Phloem
Sol. In C4 plants, C4 cycle occurs in mesophyll cells and C3 cycle in bundle sheath cells. Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 46. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogenfixing
microorganism?
a. Cicer arietinum
b. Casuarina equisetifolia
c. Crotalaria juncea
d. Cycas revolute
Sol. The filamentous nitrogen – fixing microorganism like Frankia occurs in root-nodules of
non-leguminous plants like Casuarina and Alnus. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 47. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?
a. Pollen grain
b. Microspore mother cell
c. Male gamete
d. Egg
Sol. The microspore mother cells develops an internal layer of callose which breaks the
plasmodesmatal connections among themselves. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 48. Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?
a. Ca
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Cu
Sol. Calcium is an essential macronutrient for plant growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 49. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following would
you look for confirmatory evidence?
a. Haemocytes
b. Serum albumins
c. Serum globulins
d. Fibrinogen in the plasma
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 50. Which one of the following is a fat -soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
a. Calciferol – Pellagra
b. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
c. Retinol – Xerophthalmia
d. Cobalamine – Beri-beri
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 51. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to
carbon-dioxide aerobically?
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Unstriated muscle cells
d. Liver cells
Sol. RBCs do not have mitochondria & thus can respire only anaerobically. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 52. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of:
a. lower levels of adrenalin / noradrenalin in its blood
b. higher levels of thyroxin
c. higher levels of cortisone
d. lower levels of blood testosterone
Sol. The bullock is castrated and therefore secretion of testosterone is not adequate. Correct
choice: (4)
Q. 53. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of:
a. FSH only
b. LH only
c. Combination of FSH and LH
d. Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 54. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?
a. Cranial nerves
b. Floating ribs
c. Collar bones
d. Salivary glands
- 10 pairs
- 2 pairs
– 3 pairs
–1 pair
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 55. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions
most frequently?
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Ciliated epithelium
c. Thrombocytes
d. Tendon
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 56. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will
not coagulate?
a. Whole blood from pulmonary vein
b. Blood plasma
c. Blood serum
d. Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
Sol. Blood serum does not contain fibrinogen and few other clotting factors, thus it will not
coagulate. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 57. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed
building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action?
a. Gastrin
b. Thyroxin
c. Adrenaline
d. Glucagon
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 58. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have:
a. less urea in his urine
b. more sodium in his urine
c. less amino acids in his urine
d. more glucose in his blood.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 59. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types
of cell?
a. Nucleus and mitochondria
b. Perikaryon and dendrites
c. Vacuoles and fibers
d. Flagellum and medullary sheath
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q.60. Which part of ovary in mam mals acts as an endocrine gland after evolution?
a. Vitelline membrane
b. Graafian follicle
c. Stroma
d. Germinal epithelium
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 61. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner
side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
a. First positive, then negative and again back to positive
b. First negative, then positive and again back to negative
c. First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
d. First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 62. A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorous metabolism in his body.
Which one of the following glands may not be functioning properly?
a. Thyroid
b. Parathyroid
c. Parotid
d. Pancreas
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 63. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned:
a. Rann of Kutch
b. Dachigam National Park
c. Sunderbans
d. Periyar
- Wild Ass
- Snow Leopard
–Bengal Tiger
–Elephant
Sol. Dachigam National Park is for the conservation of Hangul.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 64. In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage (S),
distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged
in ascending order?
a. S < DE < PE < SE
b. SE < S < PE < DE
c. SE < PE < S < DE
d. PE < S < SE < DE
Sol. BOD of distillery effluent is 40,000 mg / l and that of paper mill effluent and sewage is 190
mg/l and 30 mg/l, respectively. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 65. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary
productivity?
a. Temperate deciduous forest
b. Tropical rain forest
c. Tropical deciduous forest
d. Temperate evergreen forest
Sol. Tropical rain forest has highest annual net primary productivity (9000 K cal / m 2 / yr).
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 66. Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian
countryside?
a. Pongamia
b. Euphorbia
c. Beetroot
d. Sugarcane
Sol. Pongamia, Jatropa, Euphorbia are petrocrops. However, in the Indian countryside, Pongamia
(Kanjar) is being utilized as a source of biodiesel. Correct choice: (1)


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