List of few questions of All India Pre Medical Test (AIPMT) Exam question paper are given below .
All India Pre Medical Test Exam question paper
Biology
Q. 1. Biological organisation starts with:
a. Atomic level
b. Submicroscopic molecular level
c. Cellular level
d. Organismic level
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 2. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements
including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and:
a. calcium and phosphorous
b. phosphorus and sulphur
c. sulphur and magnesium
d. magnesium and sodium
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 3. Which one of the following is an example of negative feed back loop in humans?
a. Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.
b. Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold.
c. Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles in to the eye
d. Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food.
Sol. When the set point of hypothalamus is disturbed by high temperature, it stimulates
vasodilation and sweating while in low temperature there is vasoconstriction and shivering.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 4. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
a. Homoiothermy
b. Seasonal migration]
c. Thick subcutaneous fat
d. Convergent evolution
Sol. Shark is poikilothermous. All three species show adaptations for aquatic life while these are
not closely related. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
a. Phospholipids
b. Cholesterol
c. Glycolipids
d. Proline
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 6. Select the wrong statement from the following:
a. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria.
b. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain and inner and an outer membrane
c. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space
bounded by the thylakoid membrane
d. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 7. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the
formation of:
a. Nucleic acids
b. ATP is small stepwise units
c. ATP in one large oxidation reaction
d. Sugars
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 8. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same
value, the following is most likely to occur:
a. a skewed curve
b. a normal distribution
c. a bi-modal distribution
d. a T -shaped curve
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 9. Which one of the following is a slime mould?
a. Anabaena
b. Rhizopus
c. Physarum
d. Thiobacillus
Sol. Physarum is an acellular slime mould. Correct choice: (3)
Q.10. For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, which one of the following pairs is
suitable?
a. Wheat and maiden hair fern
b. Sugarcane and sunflower
c. Teak and pine
d. Deodar and fern
Sol. Secondary growth occurs in gymnosperms and dicots. Correct choice: (3)
Q.11. Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong?
a. They cause disease in plants
b. They are also called PPLO
c. They are pleomorphic
d. They are sensitive to penicillin
Sol. Mycoplasma is not sensitive to penicillin due to absence of cell wall. Correct choice: (4)
Q.12. In the prothallus of vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different
times. As a result:
a. self fertilization is prevented
b. there is no change in success rate of fertilization
c. there is high degree of sterility
d. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
Sol. In vascular cryptogam i.e. in pteridophytes gametophyte is monoecious but protandrous to
avoid self fertilization. Correct choice: (1)
Q.13. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they:
a. have same number of chromosomes
b. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds
c. have more than 90 per cent similar genes
d. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolities.
Sol. The members of a species are inter-fertile and produce fertile offsprings. Correct choice: (2)
Q.14. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following
characters you should choose?
a. Chemical composition of the cell wall
b. Types of pigments present in the cell
c. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
d. Structural organization of thallus.
Sol. The various algae are classified mainly on the types of pigments present in their cells.
Correct choice: (2)
Q.15. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets?
a. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
b. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
c. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
d. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
Sol. The male gametes of bryophytes are biflagellete, and those of pteriodophytes are
multiflagellate, except Selaginella having biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of
gymnosperms are non motile except those of Cycas having multiciliate gametes. Correct choice:
(1)
Q.16. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
a. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
b. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms formed
c. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
d. an opening in the mega gametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg.
Sol. In gymnosperms, below micropylar beak some of the cells of nucellus of ovule disintigerate
to form pollen chamber. Correct choice: (3)
Q.17. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by:
a. peristome teeth
b. elaters
c. indusium
d. calyptra
Sol. In some liverworts like Marchantia spore dispersal is due to hydrochasy and is aided by
elaters. Correct choice: (2)
Q.18. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes?
a. Morchella and Mushrooms
b. Birds’ nest fungi and Pufballs
c. Pufballs and Claviceps
d. Peziza and Stink horns
Sol. Bird’s nest fungi – Cyathus, Pufballs – Lycoperdon, Both belong to the class
Basidiomycetes. Correct choice: (3)
Q.19. ICBN stands for:
a. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
b. Indian Congress of Biological Names
c. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
d. International Congress of Biological Names
Sol. ICBN is one of the codes of nomenclature. It stands for International Code of Botanical
Nomenclature. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 20. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of:
a. Claviceps
b. Phytophthora
c. Uncinula
d. Ustilago
Sol. Ergot of rye is caused by Claviceps purpurea. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 21. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of
adaptation, the phenomenon is termed:
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. Microevolution
d. Co-evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. Adaptive radiation refers to:
a. Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
b. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
c. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
d. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 23. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on
the basis of their ability for:
a. growth the movement
b. responsiveness to touch
c. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
d. reproduction
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 24. The Finches of Galapogas islands provide an evidence in favour of:
a. Biogeographical Evolution
b. Special Creation
c. Evolution due to Mutation
d. Retrogressive Evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 25. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is:
a. Random creation of new species
b. No change in the isolation faunax
c. Preventing Speciation
d. Speciation through reproductive isolation
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 26. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that:
a. Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
b. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
c. The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial
area
d. The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or
non-polluted area.
Sol. It is an example of directional selection. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 27. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:
a. Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
b. Crystallization of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
c. Interaction of water, air and clay under
d. Effect of solar radiation of chemicals
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 28. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in:
a. Homo habilis
b. Homo neanderthalensis
c. Homo erectus
d. Ramapithecus
Sol. Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in the range of 680-720 c.c. & that of
Homo erectus erectus 775-990 c.c,
Homo erectus pekinensis 915-1200 c.c.
Homo neanderthalensis 1300-1600 c.c. Correct choice:
Q. 29. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
a. Crocodile
b. Sea Urchin
c. Obelia
d. Lemur
- 4-Chambered heart
- Parapodia
– Metagenesis
– Thecodont
(1) Only A and B
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A and D
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 30. Select the correct statement from the following:
a. Mutations are random and directional
b. Darwinian variations are small and directionless
c. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
d. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrate.
Sol. It explains natural selection. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 31. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing
it?
a. Ventral heart
b. Post-anal tail
c. Ventral Central nervous system
d. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in
embryo
- Scorpion
- Octopus
– Leech
– Chamaeleon
Sol. Scorpion has dorsal heart. Post-anal tail is found only in chordates. Pharyngeal gill slits are
present in the embryo of chameleon. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 32. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
a. Ovoparity
b. Homoiothermy
c. Toothless jaws
d. Functional post -anal tail
Sol. Only birds & mammals are homoiothermous. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 33. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver fish?
a. They all belong to the same phylum
b. They all have jointed paired appendages
c. They all possess dorsal heart
d. None of them is aquatic
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 34. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
b. Stem cells are specialized cells
c. There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
d. All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 35. “Foolish Seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of:
a. IAA
b. GA
c. ABA
d. 2, 4 – D
Sol. Foolish seeding disease (Bakane disease) of rice is due to a fungus Giberella fujikuroi.
Yabuta and Sumuki obtained achemical from the fungus and called gibbrellic acid. Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 36. Passage cells are thin- walled cells found in:
a. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
b. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.
c. phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other plant
parts.
d. testa of seed to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination.
Sol. Passage cells also called transfusion tissue are found in the endodermis meant for rapid
transport of water from cortex to pericycle. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 37. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is:
a. Quinone
b. Cytochrome
c. Iron-sulphur protein
d. Ferredoxin.
Sol. The first acceptor of electros from an excited chlorophyll is quinone. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 38. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is
located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This
enzyme is:
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. lactate dehydrogenase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
d. malate dehydrogenase
Sol. Succinate dehydrogenase is a common enzyme for TCA and ETC. It is located on inner
mitochondrial membrane. Rest of the TCA enzymes are present in mitochondrial matrix. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 39. The wavelength of light absorbed by
Pr form of phytochrome is:
a. 620 nm
b. 640 nm
c. 680 nm
d. 720 nm
Sol. The
Pr form of phytochrome receives red light (600-680 nm) and changes into Pfr. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 40. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is type of:
a. Autonomic movement of growth
b. Autonomic movement of locomotion
c. Autonomic movement of variation
d. Paratonic movement of growth.
Sol. Opening of floral bud into flowers, is due to epinasty, a type of autonomic movement of
growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 41. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
a. IAA - Cell wall elongation
b. Abscissic Acid - Stomatal closure
c. Gibberellic Acid - Leaf fall
d. Cytokinin - Cell division
Sol. Leaf fall is due to interaction of auxin and ethylene. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 42. One gene - one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in:
a. Diploccus pneumoniae
b. Neurospora crassa
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Escherichia Coli
Sol. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was given by Beadle and Tatum in red mould
(Neurospora crassa). Correct choice: (2)
Q. 43. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of:
a. Microspore mother cell
b. Microspore
c. Generative cell
d. Vegetative cell
Sol. During the development of male gametophyte first of all two cells – generative cell and tube
nucleus are formed from a pollen. This twocelled stage is called pollen grain. Finally the
generative cell divides to form 2-male gametes. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 44. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure -
7atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3
atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be:
a. Movement of water of Cell A to B
b. Movement of water from Cell B to A
c. No movement of water
d. Equilibrium between the two
Sol. The direction of movement of water is from low to high DPD. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 45. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of:
a. Epidermis
b. Mesophyll
c. Bundle Sheath
d. Phloem
Sol. In C4 plants, C4 cycle occurs in mesophyll cells and C3 cycle in bundle sheath cells. Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 46. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogenfixing
microorganism?
a. Cicer arietinum
b. Casuarina equisetifolia
c. Crotalaria juncea
d. Cycas revolute
Sol. The filamentous nitrogen – fixing microorganism like Frankia occurs in root-nodules of
non-leguminous plants like Casuarina and Alnus. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 47. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?
a. Pollen grain
b. Microspore mother cell
c. Male gamete
d. Egg
Sol. The microspore mother cells develops an internal layer of callose which breaks the
plasmodesmatal connections among themselves. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 48. Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?
a. Ca
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Cu
Sol. Calcium is an essential macronutrient for plant growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 49. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following would
you look for confirmatory evidence?
a. Haemocytes
b. Serum albumins
c. Serum globulins
d. Fibrinogen in the plasma
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 50. Which one of the following is a fat -soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
a. Calciferol – Pellagra
b. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
c. Retinol – Xerophthalmia
d. Cobalamine – Beri-beri
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
For more questions , here is the attachment;
